triclino Posted April 16, 2010 Posted April 16, 2010 Can the following definition of the absolute value be considered as correct?? ([math]x\geq 0\Longrightarrow |x|=x[/math]) and (x<0[math]\Longrightarrow |x|=-x[/math])
D H Posted April 16, 2010 Posted April 16, 2010 That works. So does saying that |x|=x for x>0, |x|=-x for x<=0. Or a three-way case, [math]|x|=\begin{cases} \phantom{-}x & \text{if~}x>0 \\ -x &\text{if~} x<0\\ \phantom{-}0 & \text{if~}x=0\end{cases}[/math] I like the latter as it explicitly identifies 0 is a special case and because of the symmetry. That's just personal preference. There are many other ways to write it. For example [math]|x|=\sqrt{x^2}[/math] 1
triclino Posted April 16, 2010 Author Posted April 16, 2010 But ,however, logic dictates us the following: If we put : ([math]x\geq 0[/math]): = p (|x|=x) := r (x<0): = q (|x|= -x): = s...............then we have: ([math]p\Longrightarrow r[/math]) and ([math]q\Longrightarrow s[/math]) which logicaly implies: [math]p\wedge q\Longrightarrow r\wedge s[/math] But p&q means that we have : [math]x\geq 0[/math] and x<0 . IS that possible??
the tree Posted April 16, 2010 Posted April 16, 2010 Yes, in fact it's necessarily true. Since p^q is never true, p^q => r^s is a vacuous truth. Remember that if a is false then [a=>b] is true regardless of b.
triclino Posted April 16, 2010 Author Posted April 16, 2010 Yes but introducing false statements into a proof can lead us to disastrous consequences
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