triclino Posted April 17, 2010 Posted April 17, 2010 Can the following two definitions of sqrt(x) be considered as equivalent?? 1) if [math]x\geq 0[/math] ,then ([math]\sqrt x=y[/math]) if ([math]y^2=x\wedge y\geq 0[/math]) 2) if [math]x\geq 0[/math] ,then ([math]\sqrt x=y[/math]) iff ([math]y^2=x\wedge y\geq 0[/math])
the tree Posted April 18, 2010 Posted April 18, 2010 Since the positive square root function is single valued and monotonic, I would say so.
triclino Posted April 18, 2010 Author Posted April 18, 2010 If they are equivalent we must have: (1) implying (2) and (2) implying (1) . I can see that (2) implies (1) ,but how does (1) imply (2)??
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now