Strange Posted March 25, 2020 Posted March 25, 2020 1 hour ago, M S La Moreaux said: Faraday’s Law is not a law because it is not an expression of a physical principle. A law, in physics, is not a description of a principle; it is a mathematical summary of observed behaviour. That seems to apply perfectly well to Faraday's law. Quote Laws differ from scientific theories in that they do not posit a mechanism or explanation of phenomena: they are merely distillations of the results of repeated observation. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_law 1 hour ago, M S La Moreaux said: I believe that Faraday’s Law does not belong in the textbooks. I doubt anyone cares.
studiot Posted March 25, 2020 Posted March 25, 2020 (edited) I really don't see how you can base your claim on what we now call Faraday's Law. 2 hours ago, M S La Moreaux said: I am referring to the version of Faraday’s Law which uses the ordinary time derivative and not the partial derivative, which version is called the Maxwell-Faraday Law and is one of Maxwell’s equations. Faraday was the archetypal example of the expermental scientific method in action but he was not a mathematician and he knew nothing of derivatives , ordinary or partial. He was instructed by the Royal Society in 1821 to investigate the results published by Oersted and from then until about 1860 he did this and more in spades. He was the first to show that one could generate electricity from magnetism and developed a field theory not dissimilar from the modern quantum one. So have you read what he actually wrote in his excellent reports about induction? Hint he was prompted by a comment from a gentleman called Moll to realise that the rate of change was important, and promply devised experiments to explore this. Edited March 25, 2020 by studiot
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