Widdekind Posted May 30, 2010 Posted May 30, 2010 (edited) Why doesn't the following formula work, for fully relativistic Quantum phenomena ? It seems to have the correct Classical, low-energy, expansion: [math]\left( E - V \right)^2 = (m c^2)^2 + (p c)^2[/math] For, when V << E, pc << mc2, the aforesaid formula forms the familiar Classical equation. Seeking the square-root: [math]E - V = (m c^2) \sqrt{1 + \frac{p}{mc}^2 } \approx (m c^2) + \frac{p^2}{2 m} [/math] [math]E \approx (m c^2) + \frac{p^2}{2 m} + V[/math] This, in turn, reduces to the regular Schrodinger Wave Equation with the standard substitutions (Hughes. Elementary Particles, pg. 48): [math] \hat{E} \to i \hbar \partial_t \;\;\;\;\;\;\;\; \hat{\vec{p}} \to - i \hbar \vec{\nabla} [/math] save, of course, for an overall phase factor proportional to [math]\hbar \omega_0 = m c^2[/math]. Indeed, is it not true, that, in the presence of electro-magnetic fields, those classical quantities, and their corresponding Quantum Mechanical operators, transform as (?): [math] \hat{E} \to \hat{E} - q V \;\;\;\;\;\;\;\; \hat{\vec{p}} \to \hat{\vec{p}} - q \vec{A} [/math] Then, one could extend the analogy further, allowing the q's & V's to represent other kinds of charges (e.g. Weak Charge, Color Charge) and their corresponding potentials. Edited May 30, 2010 by Widdekind
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