kavlas Posted June 7, 2010 Posted June 7, 2010 Hi everyone There two problems that bother me for quite some time. 1)If [math]\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x+1)}{f(x)}=2[/math] then find [math]\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x+2)}{f(x-2)}[/math]. 2) I do not know if this the right place to ask for this problem but here it goes. Can we prove the De Morgan law? Thank you
Mr Skeptic Posted June 7, 2010 Posted June 7, 2010 Find [math]\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x+2)}{f(x+1)}\frac{f(x+1)}{f(x)}\frac{f(x)}{f(x-1)}\frac{f(x-1)}{f(x-2)}[/math]
kavlas Posted June 8, 2010 Author Posted June 8, 2010 Why not? I am sorry i cannot see why you are doing that.
Mr Skeptic Posted June 8, 2010 Posted June 8, 2010 Well, cancel out the terms and see what you get. On the other hand, can you figure out what the limit of the individual fractions would be, and then multiply them together?
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