theoriginal169 Posted June 8, 2010 Posted June 8, 2010 f(x + x[math]_{0}[/math])=[math]\sum[/math]1/n! x[math]_{0}[/math]^n(d/dx)^n f(x) i saw this at my book but didnt understand .
ajb Posted June 8, 2010 Posted June 8, 2010 The Taylor series of an infinitely differentiable function [math]f(x)[/math] in the neighbourhood of a real number [math]a[/math] (complex also works) is [math] f(a) + (x-a) f'(x)|_{x = a} + \frac{1}{2!}(x-a)^{2} f''(x)|_{x = a} + \frac{1}{3!}(x-a)^{3}f'''(x)|_{x = a} + \cdots .[/math] Hope that is a little clearer.
ajb Posted June 8, 2010 Posted June 8, 2010 Often, a is chosen to be 0, for simplicity's sake. Of course this depends on exactly what you are doing, in the case [math]a=0[/math] the series is also known as the Maclaurin series.
theoriginal169 Posted June 8, 2010 Author Posted June 8, 2010 The Taylor series of an infinitely differentiable function [math]f(x)[/math] in the neighbourhood of a real number [math]a[/math] (complex also works) is [math] f(a) + (x-a) f'(x)|_{x = a} + \frac{1}{2!}(x-a)^{2} f''(x)|_{x = a} + \frac{1}{3!}(x-a)^{3}f'''(x)|_{x = a} + \cdots .[/math] Hope that is a little clearer. at my question a is x x-a is x0 why? what changes in f(x+x0)
ajb Posted June 8, 2010 Posted June 8, 2010 Your original expression reads [math]f(x + x_{0}) = f(x) + x_{0}f'(x) + \frac{1}{2}(x_{0})^{2} f''(x) + \cdots[/math]. This is just the Taylor expansion about "small" [math]x_{0}[/math].
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