Widdekind Posted June 14, 2010 Posted June 14, 2010 The "(pseudo)scalar" (S=0) mesons, [math]\pi^0 = (u \bar{u} - d \bar{d})/ \sqrt{2}[/math] and [math]\eta = (u \bar{u} + d \bar{d} - 2 s \bar{s})/ \sqrt{6}, \eta^{'} = (u \bar{u} + d \bar{d} + s \bar{s})/ \sqrt{3}[/math] contain contributions from d,u,s type quarks, in a Spin anti-parallel configuration. Thus, with their Spins separated by 1 unit, the individual quarks comprising those mesons could (hypothetically) emit, absorb, & exchange W-Bosons. Is it possible, that the reason why those mesons are not "pure" [math]d \bar{d}, u \bar{u}, s \bar{s}[/math] states, but rather admixtures of them, is b/c the individual quarks comprising those mesons are (actually) undergoing Weak Force interactions, passing W-Bosons back & forth, and Flavour Oscillating ([math]d (W^{-} W^{+}) \bar{d} \to u (W^{+} W^{-}) \bar{u} \to s (W^{-} W^{+}) \bar{s} \to u (W^{+} W^{-}) \bar{u}[/math])... ???
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