Genecks Posted July 4, 2010 Share Posted July 4, 2010 (edited) So, I have this quiz question I'm looking over. This really takes the cake. I got it right, but I think the question is illogical and invalid, thus there is no T/F answer. The large size of the daughter oocyte after meiosis II results from uneven distribution of the cytoplasm which allows the zygote to divide mitotically before it begins growing. TRUE OR FALSE? I marked true. But the important thing here would be that the question is totally illogical: The growth stage occurs before mitotic division (interphase is before mitosis). What do you think of this situation? Is this a valid question that has an answer? Edited July 5, 2010 by Genecks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ontogeny Posted July 5, 2010 Share Posted July 5, 2010 I am no specialist, but I do think it makes sense. They are not talking about the growth phase, but stating that the zygote continues to divide mitotically...mitosis has 2 growth phases G1 and G2 and interphase is part of mitosis. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Genecks Posted July 5, 2010 Author Share Posted July 5, 2010 (edited) There were two ways I was looking at this question. The other was was the fact that for a zygote to develop (or grow), it has to divide. view 1: Growth comes before division. view 2: Division and growth occur at the same time. When I was looking at this problem, I was considering that part of the question was true, but the latter part was false. The part that comes before "which" can be considered true; but the part after "which" should be considered false. I am no specialist, but I do think it makes sense. They are not talking about the growth phase, but stating that the zygote continues to divide mitotically...mitosis has 2 growth phases G1 and G2 and interphase is part of mitosis. Growth has to complete before mitosis can complete. Edited July 5, 2010 by Genecks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CharonY Posted July 5, 2010 Share Posted July 5, 2010 It makes perfect sense. Up to the blastocyst stage there is no cell growth. Embryogenesis is quite different from usual "simple" cell division. It is a common theme in biology that there are few truly universal rules. Different mechanisms need to be employed to achieve specific outcomes. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DctrZaius Posted October 13, 2010 Share Posted October 13, 2010 Yes I thought it made sense. It's poorly written but nonetheless it's trying to say that more cytoplasm is required in the oocyte to provide for daughter cells after the pronuclei fuse and division begins. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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