abcalphabeta Posted September 16, 2010 Posted September 16, 2010 f(f(n-1))=f(n+1)-f(n) if a solution exists (which i somehow doubt but am unable to prove)
Bignose Posted September 16, 2010 Posted September 16, 2010 At least one solution exists f(n)=0. It is rather trivial, though.
the tree Posted September 18, 2010 Posted September 18, 2010 A simple proof by contradiction should at least show that there are no non-trivial linear solutions. (*) f(f(n-1))=f(n+1)-f(n) assume f to be linear f2(n-1)=f(1) f(n-1)=1 f=1 (*) 1=1-1 // so f is not linear
abcalphabeta Posted September 18, 2010 Author Posted September 18, 2010 whoops i forgot to mention the function is from N to N. so the equation is satisfied for n>=2 from this i infer f is strict increasing and f(n+1)-f(n)>=n-3 and many more inequalities. but none leads to any sort of contradiction.
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