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Posted

It seems a good time for me to clarify a bit about myself and what I’m up to. I’m 61 years old and have a background in the philosophy of science and human ecology (having published books in both areas), as well as in general philosophy (where I recently completed a 40-year book project). Having said what I have to say in these fields, not too long ago I moved on to another field that has always interested me, and in which I had done some work previously, namely the foundations of physics.

 

 

My interest in the foundations of physics consists in looking at the subject as a whole, first to understand it, and then, perhaps, to try to improve it. So this means studying electrodynamics, relativity theory, QM and so on, all in a broader perspective in which none of them can be taken for granted. This, of course, is a gigantic undertaking, and if I live long enough to have something to say on the topic, it will undoubtedly be many years from now.

 

 

This investigation of the foundations of physics has come to include, among many other things, looking at the Doppler effect as it should be conceived on wave as compared to particle theories. In this context, I ran into what seemed to me a problem with regard to the the constancy of the speed of light, and sought help with this problem in Science Forums. Given the equation v = λn, and an instance of light known to be of a constant wavelength but which provides different spectral shifts under different conditions of relative motion, it would appear that the speed of the light ought not be constant. Hm! The first question then becomes: Well, is it constant or isn’t it? If an experiment is to be turned to in this regard, then of course it cannot presuppose either Maxwell’s theory or special relativity, since they both (each in its own way) have the constancy of the velocity of light built into them. And if it turns out that there do exist independent experiments confirming light’s constant velocity, how is it then that that velocity appears to be variable when v = λn is applied to particular instances of the Doppler effect? Is the equation wrong? Or am I making a mistake somewhere here? I’d like to know what’s going on. Note that I’m not making any claims at all! I’m seeking clarification.

 

 

In this general regard, however, I have much experience of people who thought they were putting me straight when their understanding of the situation turned out to be less sophisticated than my own, and who were just giving knee-jerk reactions to my questioning of the status quo. (Of course any investigation of the foundations of physics must be prepared to question the status quo, even on central points.) This is very tiresome, as you can imagine. To my mind, this sort of reaction is largely what I have experienced in my interactions in Science Forums. This is unfortunate, and I hope it will change!

 

 

Posted
In this general regard, however, I have much experience of people who thought they were putting me straight when their understanding of the situation turned out to be less sophisticated than my own, and who were just giving knee-jerk reactions to my questioning of the status quo. (Of course any investigation of the foundations of physics must be prepared to question the status quo, even on central points.) This is very tiresome, as you can imagine. To my mind, this sort of reaction is largely what I have experienced in my interactions in Science Forums. This is unfortunate, and I hope it will change!

 

Can you quote an example on this site where someone incorrectly tried to correct you? We shall try to set someone straight.

Posted

Doppler shift alters the wavelength - i.e frequency not speed. Doppler radar relies on this effect.

 

Correct. The wave's speed is dependent on the medium and so this effect changes the wavelength and frequency but not the speed.

 

But what if you tried doing doppler shift with particles who's speed is not dependent on the medium? (I ask because you seem to be implying that someone does this)

Posted

 

This investigation of the foundations of physics has come to include, among many other things, looking at the Doppler effect as it should be conceived on wave as compared to particle theories. In this context, I ran into what seemed to me a problem with regard to the the constancy of the speed of light, and sought help with this problem in Science Forums. Given the equation v = λn, and an instance of light known to be of a constant wavelength but which provides different spectral shifts under different conditions of relative motion, it would appear that the speed of the light ought not be constant. Hm! The first question then becomes: Well, is it constant or isn’t it? If an experiment is to be turned to in this regard, then of course it cannot presuppose either Maxwell’s theory or special relativity, since they both (each in its own way) have the constancy of the velocity of light built into them. And if it turns out that there do exist independent experiments confirming light’s constant velocity, how is it then that that velocity appears to be variable when v = λn is applied to particular instances of the Doppler effect? Is the equation wrong? Or am I making a mistake somewhere here? I’d like to know what’s going on. Note that I’m not making any claims at all! I’m seeking clarification.

 

 

I'm not sure where you got v = λn. The left-hand side has units of speed, and the right-hand side has units of length. The equation is meaningless, and can tell you nothing. So yes, you have got it wrong.

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