alpha2cen Posted January 21, 2011 Posted January 21, 2011 (edited) Is fast turning object influenced less gravity effect? Which direction does the gravity reduce? Edited January 21, 2011 by alpha2cen
lemur Posted January 21, 2011 Posted January 21, 2011 Like does the Earth's gravity decrease because it is rotating?
sheldoncooper Posted January 21, 2011 Posted January 21, 2011 (edited) i might be wrong but i am under the impression that only the mass of the object determines it's gravity pull. regards Edited January 21, 2011 by sheldoncooper
alpha2cen Posted January 21, 2011 Author Posted January 21, 2011 Gravity makes curvature in the space time. If the object's spinning speed fast, is wave moving speed of the space time curvature reduced?
alpha2cen Posted January 21, 2011 Author Posted January 21, 2011 Thank you for good answer. I did not know there is a theory about gravitomagnetism.
swansont Posted January 21, 2011 Posted January 21, 2011 Thank you for good answer. I did not know there is a theory about gravitomagnetism. Note well that it has nothing to do with actual magnetic effects. It has that name because the equations look similar to magnetic interactions.
Moontanman Posted January 22, 2011 Posted January 22, 2011 Is the OP asking about the effects of centrifugal force at the equator of a rotating planet? If so it is possible for a object to rotate fast enough for the effects of gravity to be canceled out by centrifugal force.
StrontiDog Posted February 1, 2011 Posted February 1, 2011 Gravity makes curvature in the space time. If the object's spinning speed fast, is wave moving speed of the space time curvature reduced? Why would there even be a gravitational wave unless the spinning object was highly lopsided or had a very dense, off-center volume within it? If it managed to create gravitational waves, they would propagate at the speed of light. No more, no less. Higher spin rates would probably increase the frequency of the gravitational waves, but it wouldn't affect their speed. If gravitational waves exist at all, that is. Last I heard they haven't actually been detected to any degree of certainty, though there have been some interesting possibilities dating back to 1987. Bill Wolfe
twistor59 Posted February 1, 2011 Posted February 1, 2011 Why would there even be a gravitational wave unless the spinning object was highly lopsided or had a very dense, off-center volume within it? If it managed to create gravitational waves, they would propagate at the speed of light. No more, no less. Higher spin rates would probably increase the frequency of the gravitational waves, but it wouldn't affect their speed. Sounds right to me. I vaguely remember the source needs a quadrupole term in order to emit gravitational waves.... If fact yes, from wikipedia: More technically, the third time derivative of the quadrupole moment (or the l-th time derivative of the l-th multipole moment) of an isolated system's stress-energy tensor must be nonzero in order for it to emit gravitational radiation. This is analogous to the changing dipole moment of charge or current necessary for electromagnetic radiation.
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