apricimo Posted January 21, 2011 Posted January 21, 2011 Hi I was wondering how come when they show the calculation of a second moment for a particular variable they don't also square the binomial function but only the term outside it. for example this is how they show it [math] \begin{array}{l} \overline {n_1 ^2 } = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^M {W(n_1 )} n_1 ^2 \\ \overline {n_1 ^2 } = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^M {\frac{{N!}}{{n_1 !(N - n_1 )!}}p^{n_1 } q^{N - n_1 } } n_1 ^2 \\ \end{array} [/math] why not also square the n inside the W function?
timo Posted January 21, 2011 Posted January 21, 2011 Given a probability function P(x) and a function f(x), then the expectation value for f is [math] \bar f = \sum_x P(x)f(x)[/math]. The second moment is the expectation value for the "function" f(x)=x², i.e. [math] \overline{x^2} = \sum_x P(x) x^2[/math].
apricimo Posted January 21, 2011 Author Posted January 21, 2011 Given a probability function P(x) and a function f(x), then the expectation value for f is [math] \bar f = \sum_x P(x)f(x)[/math]. The second moment is the expectation value for the "function" f(x)=x², i.e. [math] \overline{x^2} = \sum_x P(x) x^2[/math]. ah oh ok thank you
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