Electron origin

[mathematic]

After the big bang pair production resulted in (among other things) positron-electron pairs. Positrons do not decay, so they can be removed only by annihilation with electrons. Where did the surplus electrons come from?

Edited May 4, 2011 by mathematic

[Spyman]

We currently don't know...

 

Baryon asymmetry

The baryon asymmetry problem in physics refers to the apparent fact that there is an imbalance in baryonic matter and antibaryonic matter in the universe. Neither the standard model of particle physics, nor the theory of general relativity provide an obvious explanation for why this should be so; and it is a natural assumption that the universe be neutral with all conserved charges. The Big Bang should have produced equal amounts of matter and antimatter; as such, there should have been total cancellation of both. In other words, protons should have cancelled with antiprotons, electrons with antielectrons (positrons), neutrons with antineutrons, and so on for all elementary particles. This would have resulted in a sea of photons in the universe with no matter. Since this is evidently not the case, after the Big Bang, some physical laws must have acted differently for matter and antimatter.

 

There are competing theories to explain the matter-antimatter imbalance that resulted in baryogenesis, but there is as yet no one consensus theory to explain the phenomenon.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baryon_asymmetry

 

 

Baryogenesis

In physical cosmology, baryogenesis is the generic term for hypothetical physical processes that produced an asymmetry between baryons and antibaryons in the very early universe, resulting in the substantial amounts of residual matter that make up the universe today.

 

The Dirac equation, formulated by Paul Dirac around 1928 as part of the development of relativistic quantum mechanics, predicts the existence of antiparticles along with the expected solutions for the corresponding particles. Since that time, it has been verified experimentally that every known kind of particle has a corresponding antiparticle. The CPT Theorem guarantees that a particle and its antiparticle have exactly the same mass and lifetime, and exactly opposite charge. Given this symmetry, it is puzzling that the universe does not have equal amounts of matter and antimatter. Indeed, there is no experimental evidence that there are any significant concentrations of antimatter in the observable universe.

 

There are two main interpretations for this disparity: either the universe began with a small preference for matter (total baryonic number of the universe different from zero), or the universe was originally perfectly symmetric, but somehow a set of phenomena contributed to a small imbalance in favour of matter over time. The second point of view is preferred, although there is no clear experimental evidence indicating either of them to be the correct one. The preference is based on the following point of view: if the universe encompasses everything (time, space, and matter), nothing exists outside of it and therefore nothing existed before it, leading to a total baryonic number of 0. From a more scientific point of view, there are reasons to expect that any initial asymmetry would be wiped out to zero during the early history of the universe. One challenge then is to explain how the total baryonic number is not conserved.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baryogenesis

[mathematic]

Question for Spyman. How does the description you gave (about baryon asymmetry) lead to the excess of electrons?

[36grit]

Well, If know body knows I'd like to guess. Perhaps their was a field of virtual space before (and permiating known space) and expanding faster than light. The quantum fluctuations that created our universe probably "banged" a little to the left it's center, Or that the gravity of an already existing universe warped this virtual space expansion a little in it's direction. This imbalance of pre expansion expansion caused more quantum particles spinning clock wise to develop than those that spin counter clock wise. I think charge has to do with spin bit I'm not sure.

 

 

[Realitycheck]

Why should have there been an equal amount of antimatter to matter, I wonder? Why are we not satisfied with a net charge of zero within the realm of particles as we observe? For if we had an equal amount of antimatter, the chance of basic existence would be reduced greatly. It's like we ask ourselves, "Why do we even exist, because everything should have annihilated everything else in that first microsecond and existence really should not have occurred?" which is illogical.

Edited May 7, 2011 by Realitycheck

[mathematic]

For baryons the general idea is that there are decay processes which are slightly different for anti-matter as compared to matter. These seem to fall in category of CP violation. There are no such processes for electrons or positrons.

[Spyman]

Question for Spyman. How does the description you gave (about baryon asymmetry) lead to the excess of electrons?

I said four words at the top of my post #2, maybe you should go back and read them and the links...

(It also says the same in my quoted text.)

Edited May 11, 2011 by Spyman