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Posted

Okay, in the Escape Velocity Equation, with the usual notations,

v2=2gR2/r + (v02-2gR)

 

a few articles like www.math.binghamton.edu/erik/teaching/02-separable.pdf and http://www.uv.es/EBR...5000_17_84.htmlgive the following explanation:

 

In

review, we know that at the surface of the earth, i.e., at r = R, the velocity is positive, i.e., v = v0. Examining the right side of the Velocity Equation reveals that the velocity of the object will remain positive if and only if:

 

(v02-2gR)>=0

...

 

...

Hence, the minimum such velocity, i.e. v0=√2gR is the escape velocity
...(implying that v0>=√2gR)

 

 

That raises a few doubts in my mind:

(1)Does the term 2gR2/r become zero?

 

(2) If the answer to (1) is yes(i.e. 2gR2/r=0), then how come v0 is allowed a value equal to √2gR?(since, substituting v0=√2gR in the original equation(i.e. v2=2gR2/r + (v02-2gR)) will yield v=0(which is obviously not desired if a particle has to escape the Earth)

 

(3)If the answer to (1) is no(i.e. 2gR2/r>0), then what is the fuss about (v02-2gR) being required to be positive at all? I mean, if it were negative, does it affect the original equation so much that v becomes zero?

 

Question (3) could be rephrased in this way:

If (v02-2gR) becomes negative, does it always become less than (2gR2/r)?(thus giving v as negative)

  • 2 weeks later...
Posted

I think that they are making the observation that r is very large (and much bigger than [math]R^2[/math]). Therefore the first time is very close to zero and thus ignored.

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