Jump to content

Recommended Posts

Posted (edited)

Uhm... I may be wrong here, but unless there's a chiasma - probably none? Since it's recessive, won't it need both x-chromosomes to have the hemophilia-A allele? And since the fathers's x-chromosome only carries the hemophilia-B allele (which is also recessive) there won't be a homozygote hemophilia-a or -b gene and therefore no hemophilia.

 

That's just my assumption, though. As already said, I may be wrong.

 

If this is a theoretical thought, I should mention that it's already pretty unlikely for a woman to be hemophilic to begin with. Both forms are x-linked and recessive, so if a woman is affected both of her sex-chromosomes have to carry the gene.

Edited by r_g

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

We have placed cookies on your device to help make this website better. You can adjust your cookie settings, otherwise we'll assume you're okay to continue.