g-wiz Posted July 18, 2011 Posted July 18, 2011 I was reading on hyperphysics about electric charge. It says that a proton has 1,836 times the mass of a electron, but they hold the same amount of charge. It made me think about why is it that one charge is negative and one charge is positive? What determines if a particle is negative or positively charged? is it a certain property within the particle or is it something else?
mathematic Posted July 18, 2011 Posted July 18, 2011 Negative and positive are arbitrary. The important point is that protons and electrons have opposite charge.
swansont Posted July 18, 2011 Posted July 18, 2011 It's a property some particles have. We observe certain behavior for particles with these properties.
ajb Posted July 19, 2011 Posted July 19, 2011 Another question related to this: why is charge quantised in units of the charge of the electron? The only reason I an aware of that sounds plausible is the Dirac quantisation condition. This requires the existence of magnetic monopoles, which have not been detected in nature.
imatfaal Posted July 19, 2011 Posted July 19, 2011 Sorry if this is a bit naive - but how can you reconcile charge quanitised in units of the charge of the electron with the +2/3 - 1/3 charges of the quarks?
ajb Posted July 19, 2011 Posted July 19, 2011 The charge of quarks comes in multiples on 1/3 e. So we still have a quantisation of charge. We also have quasi-particles that do not obey this quantisation. But these are not true elementary particles, so no violation here.
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