rktpro Posted August 3, 2011 Posted August 3, 2011 Suppose I set the apparatus like this (image). Now I switch the key at the same time as I move the magnet towards the coil2. What would be the amount of current induced in coil 2?
patty_protractor Posted August 4, 2011 Posted August 4, 2011 Suppose I set the apparatus like this (image). Now I switch the key at the same time as I move the magnet towards the coil2. What would be the amount of current induced in coil 2? This seems like a pretty straightforward Faraday's law type of problem. emf= opposite of the time derivative of the magnetic flux times the number of coils. I believe you will need to know the speed at which you are moving the magnet as well as the resistance of the galvanometer to complete the problem.
rktpro Posted October 4, 2011 Author Posted October 4, 2011 This seems like a pretty straightforward Faraday's law type of problem. emf= opposite of the time derivative of the magnetic flux times the number of coils. I believe you will need to know the speed at which you are moving the magnet as well as the resistance of the galvanometer to complete the problem. Can you show how it's done? I am a beginner at this
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