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Posted (edited)

So the dis-entanglement of particles happens instantaneously, but how can that be if I am in two different gravity potentials? What if one is on Earth and another is by a black hole? Would I still measure at the same "time" that the other one disentangled, and if I didn't, doesn't that mean it's not instantaneous?

Edited by questionposter
Posted

Or is this one of those examples of where QM and relativity don't mix?

 

I think that's correct but it's usually more in terms of SR where displaced particles in different rest frames, at speed wrt each other, disagree on simultaneity. So if something happened to each instantaneously for one the other would not agree that it was instantaneous.

 

I'm not sure if the fact that they rate aging differently in different gravitational fields would be a problem as they would both agree on that, so they could presumably agree on what would be instantaneous or simultaneous in the right circumstances (Perhaps if the Earth and Black Hole were at rest wrt each other ??)

Posted (edited)

I think that's correct but it's usually more in terms of SR where displaced particles in different rest frames, at speed wrt each other, disagree on simultaneity. So if something happened to each instantaneously for one the other would not agree that it was instantaneous.

 

I'm not sure if the fact that they rate aging differently in different gravitational fields would be a problem as they would both agree on that, so they could presumably agree on what would be instantaneous or simultaneous in the right circumstances (Perhaps if the Earth and Black Hole were at rest wrt each other ??)

 

But if it's instantaneous, its infinite speed, infinite distance in 0 time, the disentanglement travels the length of the entire universe and beyond in 0 time, how couldn't I perceive when it happened on Earth if I was by a black hole if it would reach me in 0 time and it didn't travel distance?

Maybe in quantum mechanics the dimension of time isn't always around. Instead of 1 2 3 and 4 dimensions, it goes 1 2 3 5 6 8 dimensions or etc.

 

I guess when I actually "saw" it, as in I saw the photon that traveled from the dis-entangled particle to me eyes, THEN there could be a time difference, but doesn't the actual disentanglement itself happen instantaneously no matter where you are?

 

Or how about this: Particles in the perception centers in my brain are entangled with some on Earth, and when they become disentangled I would know it the instant it happened as if I was the entire entangled particle myself, and I was standing by a black hole while the other disentangled particle was on Earth?

Edited by questionposter
Posted (edited)

Maybe distance is an illusion and somewhere in a higher dimension we are all overlapping?

 

Maybe "What the bleep do we know?" belongs in the philosophy section of movies.

Edited by questionposter
Posted

Here are my speculations:

 

1. Perhaps there exists a non-EM signal which propagates at infinite velocity.

2. Maybe at a higher dimension particles are all connected and it takes zero time for the flow of information from particle to particle.

3. Or the information moves into another dimension, travels at finite speed but backward in time, and emerges and show itself at the other location in our dimension.

4. Someone made a mistake in the entanglement experiment.

Posted (edited)

Here are my speculations:

 

1. Perhaps there exists a non-EM signal which propagates at infinite velocity.

2. Maybe at a higher dimension particles are all connected and it takes zero time for the flow of information from particle to particle.

3. Or the information moves into another dimension, travels at finite speed but backward in time, and emerges and show itself at the other location in our dimension.

4. Someone made a mistake in the entanglement experiment.

 

I can see the higher dimensions thing, but backwards in time? The only time stuff goes backwards in time is with mass going at or faster than light. Is information equivalent to mass or energy in some way?

 

Also, is it possible that just because particles have a probability which extends indefinitely through space that that's the mechanism for acting over such great distance? Perhaps particles themselves can act over infinite distance, but it's just the forces that are limited.

Edited by questionposter

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