Koorosh Posted October 11, 2011 Share Posted October 11, 2011 http://en.wikipedia....hahdaei_Paradox The thought experiment in this article concerns one frame moves within an inertial frame and the other frame due to large be with good approximation be inertial... Very thankful for expert or others view. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted October 11, 2011 Share Posted October 11, 2011 After a quick scan I'm having trouble reconciling "approximately inertial" and "tiny Lorentz violation". One needs to show that the approximations are not responsible for the apparent paradox. It's a thought experiment, which leads me to think that this is simply a mathematical problem from not treating it with sufficient rigor. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Koorosh Posted October 11, 2011 Author Share Posted October 11, 2011 Currently Lorentz symmetries are hot topics for many researchers, and many sensitive experiments are being constructed to find violations by e.g. looking at quantities called coefficients for Lorentz violation, if coefficients disappear completely then there wouldn’t be any violations else tiny violations might be found. As regards approximately initial, for instance as earth rotates and spins still experiments can be performed as they would be in inertial system. Without considering too much technical details, as regards math for this paradox, simply consider Lorentz transformation for two inertial systems that move in parallel with same speed would simply become Galilean transformations, as theirs relative velocity will be zero and γ (Lorentz contraction factor) becomes 1, which is shown in the article. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DrRocket Posted October 11, 2011 Share Posted October 11, 2011 As regards approximately initial, for instance as earth rotates and spins still experiments can be performed as they would be in inertial system. Only as an approximation. At the appropriate level of precision, there will be deviations from special relativity. This must be taken into consideration when looking for violations of Lorentz symmetry. Without considering too much technical details, as regards math for this paradox, simply consider Lorentz transformation for two inertial systems that move in parallel with same speed would simply become Galilean transformations, as theirs relative velocity will be zero and γ (Lorentz contraction factor) becomes 1, which is shown in the article. Better go into some of those details. What are "two inertial systems that move in parallel with same speed" ? Same speed with respect to what ? Parallel to what ? Do you mean two inertial reference frames that are stationary with respect to one another, with parallel coordinate axes ? If so the transformation is simply translation. The two frames are simply choices of an origin for parallel axes s in a single affine space. This case is utterly trivial. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Koorosh Posted October 11, 2011 Author Share Posted October 11, 2011 It was just an example to clarify, two systems are stationary to one another but not compared to O'. But in our case we can observation by O' are not trivial which is the point. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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