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All integers are not expressible as x^n+y^n, help


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Posted (edited)

During preparations for a mathematical contest I might take part in, I've come across an interesting problem:

 

Let [math] n \in \mathbb{N}[/math] and [math]a, b \in \mathbb{Z}[/math] be integers such that the set [math]\mathbb{Z} \setminus \{ ax^n+by^n, x, y \in \mathbb{Z} \}[/math] is finite. Prove that n = 1.

 

The "official" solution is the ugliest thing I've ever seen, and so incomprehensible that even my professors didn't understand it. My gut was/is telling me that there was a simpler solution, so I've been trying to find one.

I've gotten to the point where all I have to do is prove that the set [math]\mathbb{Z} \setminus \{ x^{2k+1}+y^{2k+1}, x, y \in \mathbb{Z}, k \in \mathbb{N} \}[/math] is finite, ie. that there are infinitely many numbers [math]c \in \mathbb{Z}[/math] that cannot be expressed as [math] x^{2k+1}+y^{2k+1}[/math] for a given k and some integers x, y. And I'm stuck. The only hunch I have is that c will be dependent on k, but other than that, I have nothing. I've been clueless for a week or so now, so I'd really appreciate any ideas any of you might have.

Edited by Shadow
Posted

During preparations for a mathematical contest I might take part in, I've come across an interesting problem:

 

Let [math] n \in \mathbb{N}[/math] and [math]a, b \in \mathbb{Z}[/math] be integers such that the set [math]\mathbb{Z} \setminus \{ ax^n+by^n, x, y \in \mathbb{Z} \}[/math] is finite. Prove that n = 1.

 

The "official" solution is the ugliest thing I've ever seen, and so incomprehensible that even my professors didn't understand it. My gut was/is telling me that there was a simpler solution, so I've been trying to find one.

I've gotten to the point where all I have to do is prove that the set [math]\mathbb{Z} \setminus \{ x^{2k+1}+y^{2k+1}, x, y \in \mathbb{Z}, k \in \mathbb{N} \}[/math] is finite, ie. that there are infinitely many numbers [math]c \in \mathbb{Z}[/math] that cannot be expressed as [math] x^{2k+1}+y^{2k+1}[/math] for a given k and some integers x, y. And I'm stuck. The only hunch I have is that c will be dependent on k, but other than that, I have nothing. I've been clueless for a week or so now, so I'd really appreciate any ideas any of you might have.

 

I have not worked this out in detail, but my initial thought is that one might show that, given a,b and n>1 that for sufficiently large x_0,y_0 and x_1,y_1 the difference between ax_0^n + by^n and ax_1^n+by_1^is greater than 1 (so that there are infinitely many "holes" is the set in question). You can reduce this to the case where a,x_0, x_1,y_0, y_1 are positive and b is negative. Details (and verification that this works) are left to the reader.

Posted

 

The "official" solution is the ugliest thing I've ever seen, and so incomprehensible that even my professors didn't understand it. My gut was/is telling me that there was a simpler solution, so I've been trying to find one.

 

 

 

Could you post/link this for us?

  • 2 weeks later...
Posted

Okay, after digging around a little bit I discovered the original solution in its original language, which makes understanding it a lot easier and also cuts away a lot of the ugliness I was perceiving. But it still seems like overkill to me.

 

I have since discovered that the solution I had in mind when I started this topic would be invalid. DrRocket, yours was the approach I was trying to use since I first saw the problem, but a professor of mine shot it down with showing that for a = 1, b = 1, 8 = a*2^2 + b*2^2 and 9 = a*0^2 + b*3^2. Stupidly, it never occurred to me to try and show this applied for almost all integers. Thanks for the idea.

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