eino Posted February 12, 2012 Share Posted February 12, 2012 think of this equation 1+1-1+1 = mc2 if 1 = mc^2 / 2 then compare it to e=mc2 -1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
insane_alien Posted February 12, 2012 Share Posted February 12, 2012 yeah... and this would mean what exactly? 1 would need to have units for it to be valid and it'd only work for a single value of m as it is a variable. but then what? you have the mass equivalent of 1 joule. or whatever unit of energy you apply to the 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
eino Posted February 12, 2012 Author Share Posted February 12, 2012 think of this 1+1-1+1=2 then 1+1-1+1 = mc2 if 1 = mc^2 / 2 then compare it to einsteins -1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
insane_alien Posted February 12, 2012 Share Posted February 12, 2012 you haven't answered what the point is. you also haven't addressed the lack of units. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ajb Posted February 12, 2012 Share Posted February 12, 2012 In natural units where c=1, we have that mass and energy share the same units. So lets do that. It does not really matter what we pick. Then you have 2 = m in these special units. All you have done is considered the special case of a particle of rest mass 2. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaynos Posted February 12, 2012 Share Posted February 12, 2012 ! Moderator Note Hey eino, can you please review the speculations forum rules. I'd also suggest reading the stickied threads at the top of the speculations forum. Your explanations will have to be clear else no one is going to understand you. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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