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Posted

It depends largely on whether or not they were blind since birth or became blind at some point in their life. Also, it depends on what you mean by "see."

 

 

http://www.nytimes.com/2008/12/16/health/16real.html

 

studies led by a psychologist at the University of Hartford show that for the blind, depending on when in life they lost their sense of sight, the reverse seems to be true. People born without the ability to see report no visual imagery in their dreams, but they do experience a heightening of taste, touch and smell. They also report a higher percentage of dreams that involve mishaps related to traveling or transportation, perhaps reflecting one of their biggest daytime concerns: safely finding their way around.

 

Although individual experiences vary, researchers say people who go blind before age 5 rarely experience visual imagery in their dreams. But those who lose their vision after age 5 often continue to see in their dreams, though the frequency and clarity diminish over time.

Posted (edited)

Thanks!

 

(I just found it here too link removed)

 

If a blind person where born blind, he cannot see in his dreams, however, the person still dreams (without seeing). If a person becomes blind after birth, he knows how it is to see, and can therefore often see in his dreams.

Edited by hypervalent_iodine
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Posted

Makes sense to me. If a person was born blind and could "see" in their dreams, that wouldn't make any sense because how would their mind be able to form the images when it doesn't even have the concept of seeing?

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