PositronElectron Posted February 15, 2012 Posted February 15, 2012 Assuming that leaning toward a preference for moral actions is the basis of human nature, thus the occurence of mental maturity and development of self-image is present, what are the factors which slow down this process? If demoralization exists, then the other branch would be following moral principles contributing to the ideal behavior in a community. If humans would follow fundamental moral principles, then we would reach an ideal society, developing as individuals to our full mental and physical capacities. Since both moral values and lack of them stems from within our perception and logical reasoning, then demoralization of a whole community takes root from the same source. If so, then how can humans correctly distinguish between moral values and demoralizing behavior?
imatfaal Posted February 16, 2012 Posted February 16, 2012 e+e-I think you are gonna have to rephrase the question. Assuming that leaning toward a preference for moral actions is the basis of human nature, thus the occurence of mental maturity and development of self-image is present, what are the factors which slow down this process? - assumption is a large one - but we can use it with massive provisos - the result of your assumption by no means follows - apart from particularly nuanced versions of your assumption - which process? If demoralization exists, then the other branch would be following moral principles contributing to the ideal behavior in a community. If humans would follow fundamental moral principles, then we would reach an ideal society, developing as individuals to our full mental and physical capacities. The opposite a/o complement of demoralization is not the following of moral principles - the most standard use of demoralize is to lower a subjects spirits and lower morale. demoralization as the destruction of a moral founding principle is a less than common use. addressing the meat of the question assuming the second meaning - which moral principles and how do we universally determine them? there are very few acts that throughout human history have not been "honestly" justified by men acting within their own moral compass and in tune with their own perceived morality. Since both moral values and lack of them stems from within our perception and logical reasoning, then demoralization of a whole community takes root from the same source. If so, then how can humans correctly distinguish between moral values and demoralizing behavior? yes - but what does impinge on our consciousness that does not stem from within our perception and reason. And to your final sentence - what makes you think we can? Ronald Dworkin's latest book Justice for Hedgehogs addresses this very point - I think he is wrong, but it is a great read anyway
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