linzedun Posted November 23, 2004 Posted November 23, 2004 Question: Prove that every group of order p^2 (where p is a prime) is abelian. What I started to say was this: |G| = p^2, then |G/Z(G)| = |G|/|Z(G)| which can equal p^2, p or 1, since those are the divisors of p. If |G/Z(G)| = p, then G/Z(G) is cycic because one element has order 1 and the rest of order p, which means there is a generator, it is cyclic and then G is abelian. If |G/Z(G)| = 1, then G=Z(G) so it much be abelian. However, the case where |G/Z(G)|=p^2 is where I get a little hung up. I know it never happens, but how can i prove it?
matt grime Posted November 24, 2004 Posted November 24, 2004 It's the class equation again - the centre can never be trivial in a p-group.
linzedun Posted November 24, 2004 Author Posted November 24, 2004 How do we know that the center can never be trivial? The center can be trivial when the order of the group is qp, where q and p are primes. I am confused here, would p have to be in the center if the order of G were p^2?
matt grime Posted November 25, 2004 Posted November 25, 2004 how can p be in the centre? p is a number? Look up the class equation: the order of the group is the sum of the sizes of the conjugacy classes. All conjugacy classes have order a power of p, and there is at least one conjugacy class with a single element in it, so....
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