too-open-minded Posted August 11, 2012 Share Posted August 11, 2012 Do we have evidence of completely void and empty space? Can someone please show and explain to me the mathematical proof that shows us gravitational boundary (the distance a gravitational field extends to) is infinite? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RichIsnang Posted August 11, 2012 Share Posted August 11, 2012 (edited) F=GMm/r^2 That's the Newtonian equation for Gravitational attraction, as r increases, the force between the two decreases, but will never reach 0, as a fraction with all non 0 values in it cannot equal 0. So every mass attracts every other mass in the universe, just with very little force. I hope that's what you were after Also, you can never have completely empty space, there is always fields there, the Higgs field for example will take a non zero value when there is no matter or energy in the region (and it is cooled) so there is always somethin there. Edited August 11, 2012 by RichIsnang Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
too-open-minded Posted August 11, 2012 Author Share Posted August 11, 2012 Yeah that answers my question about empty space but I still don't understand why it can't reach zero. Theirs no way to put it in a non fraction form so it can reach zero? Sorry if i'm misunderstanding, math has always been my weakpoint but I think its mainly because I was never interested in school and didn't pay attention. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RichIsnang Posted August 12, 2012 Share Posted August 12, 2012 No worries, that is the formula for working out basic gravitational attraction, you have to divide the product of the masses by the distance squared, even if you have something a billion billion billion metres away ( 10^27m) and you square it ( 10^54), the formula will still say there is some attraction, granted it will be about a 10^50th of a Newton (ridiculously small), but it will never reach zero, no matter how far away it is. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
too-open-minded Posted August 13, 2012 Author Share Posted August 13, 2012 You know I used to think their was something wrong with this formula because I don't like the concept of something being infinite. I guess it just seems infinite because our universe is finite and the gravitation field extends as far as our finite universe does, which is relatively very large to us. So it just seems infinite. I'm just trying to grasp this concept. Maybe i'm just crazy and the concept of their not being empty space along with what i'm about to say doesn't relate. Although to me these 3 things do relate. I like quantum physics and how it talks about particle behavior being "different" from our own reality. I honestly think its the same but relativity makes it looks very different. Particles are smaller and travel much faster they seem to be everywhere at once but their just moving fast relatively to us. The speed or frequency of their vibration makes it look like its not moving at all because its everywhere at once. Our reality is a wavelength. We are the frequency of something much larger as we are also the frequencies of many things smaller than us. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Airbrush Posted August 13, 2012 Share Posted August 13, 2012 F=GMm/r^2 That's the Newtonian equation for Gravitational attraction, as r increases, the force between the two decreases, but will never reach 0, as a fraction with all non 0 values in it cannot equal 0. So every mass attracts every other mass in the universe, just with very little force. I hope that's what you were after Also, you can never have completely empty space, there is always fields there, the Higgs field for example will take a non zero value when there is no matter or energy in the region (and it is cooled) so there is always somethin there. There is always something there. The most rarified region I can think of is the region between the event horizon and singularity of a black hole. But even that will have particles getting pulled towards the singularity at near light speed. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EMField Posted August 13, 2012 Share Posted August 13, 2012 Sure, here's the only answer that makes sense and is laboratory tested. http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/302l/lectures/node73.html Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ACG52 Posted August 13, 2012 Share Posted August 13, 2012 Sure, here's the only answer that makes sense and is laboratory tested. http://farside.ph.ut...res/node73.html Except that's dealing with magnetism, which is a totally different thing than gravity. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
too-open-minded Posted August 13, 2012 Author Share Posted August 13, 2012 How sure are you magnetism has nothing to do with gravity? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ACG52 Posted August 13, 2012 Share Posted August 13, 2012 How sure are you magnetism has nothing to do with gravity? Totally. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
abvegto Posted August 14, 2012 Share Posted August 14, 2012 (edited) well....the attraction can be zero at infinite distances.. f = gm1m2/ r now put r = infinity and we get f =Gm1m2 1/ infinity = 0 but this is just mathematically....u may well ask the value of infinity(there should be)...and that value will be the limit for this formula and probably for the range of gravitation itself.. Edited August 14, 2012 by abvegto 1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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