life station Posted August 15, 2012 Posted August 15, 2012 hypothitacly if there are multi universes existing ,which are the conditions in which we will not be able to see any scientific reasons ?
Phi for All Posted August 15, 2012 Posted August 15, 2012 Can you say this a different way? I'm having some trouble understanding what you're trying to ask.
life station Posted August 16, 2012 Author Posted August 16, 2012 if there are multi universes exsisting ? and we dont even get a trace of its wherabout ,what should be the scientific reasons behind it?
md65536 Posted August 24, 2012 Posted August 24, 2012 I think that anything that is observable is by definition part of our universe. So we should never be able to directly detect anything from "another" universe. To prove the existence of other universes you would have to indirectly infer their existence by showing that any case where they don't exist is impossible. You could also have an accepted theory that implies their existence, in which case they would be accepted as theoretically existing without proof. I guess like gravitons are considered now? An actual existing multiverse is an interpretation of some scientific theories. It is not a required consequence of any accepted theory... There are other ways to interpret accepted theories that don't require multiple universes. So there should be no way to prove the existence of multiple universes without proving that those accepted theories and/or their non-multiverse interpretations are inadequate.
life station Posted August 24, 2012 Author Posted August 24, 2012 thanks for answering ,that means what is not observable is not in existance ?and if gravitational pull is also not living any trace at the edge of our universal substances, so we can at least say for today as our science limitation that there should not be any another universe,but we should not forget that before this centuary we where not knowing about black holes , so when todays science in future will be equiped to detact the same may be we can find other universes.
md65536 Posted August 25, 2012 Posted August 25, 2012 that means what is not observable is not in existance ? No, that's backwards. The correct deduction is: What is observable is in existence, therefore what is not in existence is not observable.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now