scilearner Posted September 18, 2012 Posted September 18, 2012 Hello everyone, Ok my textbook says inhibition of transmitter release, vasoconstriction and more things. Now my question is what does inhibition of transmitter release mean. Since alpha 1 receptor is present on post synaptic membrane, and alpha 2 is present in pre synaptic membrane, does this mean alpha 2 actually controls the action of alpha 1 receptors by inhibiting neurotransmitter release. If that is the case why are there actions similar, shouldn't alpha 2 have oppposite actions of alpha 1 and actually decrease sympathetic activity. Also if you give a non selective alpha agonist which acts on both alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors does vasodilation occur, how? Thank you
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