Jump to content

Recommended Posts

Posted

hi, i need to know on intuitive terms why roughly 68% of a randomly sampled population falls within 1 standard deviation of the mean and 95% within 2 sd etc. There doesn't seem to be any explanations on the web besides blurting out CLT or some hocus pocus with arcane calculus symbols. Thanks

Posted

The wikipage on the 68-95-99.7 rule says the following

 

In statistics, the 68-95-99.7 rule — or three-sigma rule, or empirical rule — states that for a normal distribution, nearly all values lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

 

Note the third name - the empirical rule. The Standard deviation is a defined calculation, and the normal distribution just is; there is no ulterior motive or design - just a very useful consequence

Create an account or sign in to comment

You need to be a member in order to leave a comment

Create an account

Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!

Register a new account

Sign in

Already have an account? Sign in here.

Sign In Now
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

We have placed cookies on your device to help make this website better. You can adjust your cookie settings, otherwise we'll assume you're okay to continue.