Meital Posted December 12, 2004 Posted December 12, 2004 If R is a ring with unit element 1 and f is a homomorphism of R into an integral domain R' such that I(f) /= R. Prove that f(1) is the unit element of R'. for 1, a in R, 1.a = a.1 = a. Then f(1.a) = f(1)f(a) = f(a)f(1)= f(a) ( since R' is commutative) so we see that f(1) is the unit element of R'. Please check my proof and let me know of any mistakes I made. thanks in advance.
timo Posted December 12, 2004 Posted December 12, 2004 Actually it´s quite ok. Just two remarks: - Might be a good idea to explicitely mention that there is only one unit in a ring. Because you just show that f(1) is a unit. Ok, that´s nitpicking perhaps. - Your remark "since R' is commutative" is a bit disturbing. Simple reason: You said that nowhere before. Also, this proof is usually made for non-commutative rings. So I´d guess you´ve got a flaw there. The proof which does not use commutativity is quite similar to your attempt, though.
matt grime Posted December 12, 2004 Posted December 12, 2004 Avoid saying unit when you mean identity.
timo Posted December 12, 2004 Posted December 12, 2004 I´m not a native english speaker so I don´t really know the english term. By "unit" I meant the one-element and I used the term because Meital used it. Well possible that it´s called identity (would indeed even make more sense).
matt grime Posted December 13, 2004 Posted December 13, 2004 A unit in a ring is *any* element that has a multiplicative inverse (ie divides 1). This is a very unfortunate thing really given the other meanings of unit/unital/unitary.
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