36grit Posted November 29, 2012 Posted November 29, 2012 (edited) Everything moves in the path of least resistance. So for a particle to leap from here to there without moving through any distance inbetween must be the path of least resistance. So, what is the difference between space that was occupied and the space that was leaped to and the space inbetween? Is it a difference in the time dialation properties of this space compared to that space? Can it be calculated as some space/energy ratio by a shear genius formula? or something else like dark matter density? I wonder what the leading theory is. Edited November 29, 2012 by 36grit
ajb Posted November 29, 2012 Posted November 29, 2012 If you want to interpret the Feynman approach, then the particle will take all paths between the two points. The classical path carries more weight in the integral, but all paths contribute.
36grit Posted November 29, 2012 Author Posted November 29, 2012 I don't think I understand what your saying. When you say it takes all paths I imagine an infinite amount of paths from one place to another. So I tend to imagine that the particle "melts" into it's own infinite field then reforms instantly in it's new position. But I think we all know that my imagination is probably bigger than the universe
Anders Hoveland Posted December 16, 2012 Posted December 16, 2012 Quantum physics understands the mathematics that desribe the predicted behavior, they just do not know the underlying cause, if there even is a cause, or whether it is just an inherent law of nature.
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