jasoncurious Posted December 14, 2012 Posted December 14, 2012 Hi all, this is how my lecturer derive exergy: 1st law efficiency=W/Q Carnot efficiency=(T1-T2)/T1 W/Q=(T1-T2)/T1 W=(Q*(T1-T2))/T1 The W above refers to useful work. My question is, when we formulate the 1st law efficiency, do we have in mind that it is a reversible device (that we can equalize it with the Carnot efficiency)?
timo Posted December 14, 2012 Posted December 14, 2012 There is some argument/proof that the Carnot efficiency is the best you can get. So I believe what the engineers have in mind is an effective device, not necessarily a reversible one.
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