Darrin Posted December 23, 2012 Posted December 23, 2012 1. If you magnetize a piece of metal with a magnet will it weaken the magnet??
ox1111 Posted December 23, 2012 Posted December 23, 2012 (edited) That's a much harder question answer then you realize. There are many theorize ways in which a magnet works, but your answer is yes. Quite simply magnets are degrading all the time. This is a very very very slow process but theoretically anything you do with a magnet is converting energy from one form to another. There is no loss when energy is converted but the energy is removed from the magnet and placed on the matter in which is magnetizing. Edited December 23, 2012 by ox1111
swansont Posted December 23, 2012 Posted December 23, 2012 That's a much harder question answer then you realize. There are many theorize ways in which a magnet works, but your answer is yes. Quite simply magnets are degrading all the time. This is a very very very slow process but theoretically anything you do with a magnet is converting energy from one form to another. There is no loss when energy is converted but the energy is removed from the magnet and placed on the matter in which is magnetizing. If you are arguing that the magnetization decreases by the amount induced in the new object, I don't think that's right.
ox1111 Posted December 23, 2012 Posted December 23, 2012 No a magnet would not decrease by the amount induced into another object. But by magnetizing another object there would be a specific amount of work preformed and theoretically the magnet would be reduced by this amount.
Darrin Posted December 23, 2012 Author Posted December 23, 2012 Could a rotating magnet in close proximity to metal magnetize that metal or do they actually have to rub against each other. Also wouldn't it make sense that if you took a magnet and used it to magnetize a piece of metal that at some point the two would equalize in strength?? Thank you for you time
ox1111 Posted December 23, 2012 Posted December 23, 2012 Could a rotating magnet in close proximity to metal magnetize that metal or do they actually have to rub against each other. Also wouldn't it make sense that if you took a magnet and used it to magnetize a piece of metal that at some point the two would equalize in strength?? Thank you for you time I'm by no means an expert, but I know a magnet doesn't have to physically touch metal to magnetize it. No, they would not = in strength. The strength of a magnet is due to its atomic make-up and not due to the strength of the field that magnetizes it, meaning a ceramic magnet will never be stronger than a neodymium magnet just because you charge them up the same.
elfmotat Posted December 23, 2012 Posted December 23, 2012 OP, I believe what you're asking is whether or not "conservation of magnetism" exists. The answer to that question is no. You can create one permanent magnet without significantly (or at all) decreasing the strength of the parent magnet.
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