Semjase Posted February 8, 2013 Posted February 8, 2013 I discovered this equation with a proof through mathematical trial and error. Here's the equation pi=e^(2*(((ln(pi))^2+2*ln(pi)+1)/(2*ln(pi)+2))-1) Using ttmath's online calculator with 1024 bit mantissa the equation gave me the exact same value for pi as the constant value provided for pi by the calculator. When using the calculator with a 2048 bit mantissa the 2 values of pi were different, the last least significant digit there was a difference in 1 between the the 2 digits. If someone has access to a calculator that can calculate too more precision I am curious to find out if the discrepancy is due to calculating error or either the current value of e or pi is incorrect.
John Cuthber Posted February 9, 2013 Posted February 9, 2013 Are you taking the piss? Calculating pi in terms of pi is quite easy. pi = pi
D H Posted February 9, 2013 Posted February 9, 2013 I discovered this equation with a proof through mathematical trial and error. Here's the equation pi=e^(2*(((ln(pi))^2+2*ln(pi)+1)/(2*ln(pi)+2))-1) You don't need a calculator to verify this. It's a trivial tautology. What you wrote is just a convoluted way of saying [imath]\pi=e^{\ln \pi}[/imath], or even more succinctly, [imath]\pi=\pi[/imath].
John Cuthber Posted February 9, 2013 Posted February 9, 2013 "An exact equation for pi as a function of e and pi" e = pi * e / pi Gosh!
Semjase Posted February 9, 2013 Author Posted February 9, 2013 Are you taking the piss? Calculating pi in terms of pi is quite easy. pi = pi I'm not completely stupid If you change the value for e and/or pi in the equation it alters the value for pi from the equation, you have to have 100% accurate values for e and pi in the equation to get the 100% accurate value for pi out of the equation. So if both sides of the equation are equal then the values for e and pi are 100% accurate. You don't need a calculator to verify this. It's a trivial tautology. What you wrote is just a convoluted way of saying [imath]\pi=e^{\ln \pi}[/imath], or even more succinctly, [imath]\pi=\pi[/imath]. Such is not the case in that equation if you change the value of pi on one side of the equation you get the same value for pi on the other side of the equation. In my equation if you keep the value for e constant and change the value for pi in the equation you get a different value for pi on the other side of the equation. I apologize it's wrong I tested on a Microsoft calculator program it gave me a different value double checking it's the same value.
x(x-y) Posted February 9, 2013 Posted February 9, 2013 What are you talking about in that last post when you say "if you change the value for e and/or pi" and other variations of this statement? You cannot just change the value of e and pi, they are constants - the term is self-explanatory. And the others are correct anyway, your original post is just a long winded version of saying π = π
uncool Posted February 9, 2013 Posted February 9, 2013 (edited) I discovered this equation with a proof through mathematical trial and error. Here's the equation pi=e^(2*(((ln(pi))^2+2*ln(pi)+1)/(2*ln(pi)+2))-1) Using ttmath's online calculator with 1024 bit mantissa the equation gave me the exact same value for pi as the constant value provided for pi by the calculator. When using the calculator with a 2048 bit mantissa the 2 values of pi were different, the last least significant digit there was a difference in 1 between the the 2 digits. If someone has access to a calculator that can calculate too more precision I am curious to find out if the discrepancy is due to calculating error or either the current value of e or pi is incorrect. Let's unwind this. e^(2*(((ln(pi))^2+2*ln(pi)+1)/(2*ln(pi)+2))-1) e^(2*((ln(pi) + 1)^2)/(2 * ln(pi) + 2) - 1) e^(2 ((ln(pi) + 1)^2)/(2 * (ln(pi) + 1)) - 1) e^(((ln(pi) + 1)^2/(ln(pi) + 1)) - 1) e^((ln(pi) + 1) - 1) e^(ln(pi)) pi You've written a tautology. In other words, if you used any number instead of pi (in every position), the equation would remain true. e.g. 3 = e^(2*(((ln(3))^2+2*ln(3)+1)/(2*ln(3)+2))-1) =Uncool- Edited February 9, 2013 by uncool 2
John Cuthber Posted February 9, 2013 Posted February 9, 2013 I'm not completely stupid If you change the value for e and/or pi ... Discuss.
Cap'n Refsmmat Posted February 9, 2013 Posted February 9, 2013 I'm not completely stupid If you change the value for e and/or pi in the equation it alters the value for pi from the equation, you have to have 100% accurate values for e and pi in the equation to get the 100% accurate value for pi out of the equation. So if both sides of the equation are equal then the values for e and pi are 100% accurate. Not true. You can change the value of e and still get the right answer -- so long as you change the base of the natural logarithm to be whatever new value you chose.
Crimson Sunbird Posted February 10, 2013 Posted February 10, 2013 An exact equation for pi as a function of e and pi How about … [latex]\pi\,=\,(-\pi)e^{i\pi}[/latex]
Amaton Posted February 10, 2013 Posted February 10, 2013 Semjase, your identity is a special case of a general equality that holds true for all real numbers. Working backwards... [math]x=x[/math] [math]x=\exp[\ln x][/math] [math]x=\exp[(\ln x+1)-1][/math] [math]x=\exp\left[\frac{(\ln x+1)^2}{\ln x+1}-1\right][/math] [math]x=\exp\left[\frac{2(\ln x+1)^2}{2(\ln x+1)}-1\right][/math] [math]x=\exp\left[2\times\frac{\ln^2 x+2\ln x+1}{2\ln x + 2}-1\right][/math] We can complicate it more and more if we'd like, but as you can see it's quite trivial. Another cool but less obvious identity: [math]\pi=-2i\,\ln(i)[/math] which does the same thing but in the guise of imaginary arguments.
Semjase Posted February 11, 2013 Author Posted February 11, 2013 Here's an exact equation for e in terms of pi e=1/i^(i*2/pi) I was wondering on Google calculator when entering this equation if it used an infinite series value for pi to determine the value of e. If you compared the infinite series value for e and compared it to the value of e generated by this equation and they weren't equal then there would have to be an error somewhere either in the value for e, pi or the i calculation.
John Cuthber Posted February 11, 2013 Posted February 11, 2013 Seriously? You were wondering if Google used something infinite? I mean, I know they are big, but infinite? In all sensible probability they have just stored the numbers for pi and e in the calculator. All you are looking at are rounding errors.
Semjase Posted February 11, 2013 Author Posted February 11, 2013 I'll rephrase that, if they actually use the known value of pi at all in that calculation which therefore would of have to been to be derived from part of an infinite series for the pi value. There's a prediction that one day an error will be found in the longest calculated value of pi.Would this be a calculating error or an equation error or would this error occur be in all known equations for pi, for the pi value calculated to many decimal places? Here's part of the Enoch prophecy pertaining to pi "the exposure and rectification of an error in the Pi-number calculation." e also could be expressed this way e=i^(2/(i*pi))
John Cuthber Posted February 11, 2013 Posted February 11, 2013 "There's a prediction that one day an error will be found in the longest calculated value of pi." There may well be a prediction that it will rain frogs in London tomorrow. But the predictions are probably not correct. On what basis is the prediction made?
Semjase Posted February 11, 2013 Author Posted February 11, 2013 It's an old prophecy that was discovered and been published, and it will be interesting to see if an error will be found in the known value of pi. -1
John Cuthber Posted February 12, 2013 Posted February 12, 2013 Seriously, and "old" prophecy about e? And this is now in the wrong section, it's not maths any more.
Amaton Posted February 12, 2013 Posted February 12, 2013 It's an old prophecy that was discovered and been published, and it will be interesting to see if an error will be found in the known value of pi. Why does this sound so elemental and mystic? It didn't clarify the question. What specific "prediction" are you referring to and by what reason is it made?
Semjase Posted May 20, 2013 Author Posted May 20, 2013 Here's an exact equation for pi in terms of i and base e. The length of a section of the unit circle can be expressed as the integral of ( x^2/(1-x^2)+1)^.5 which equals i*ln((x^2-1)^.5+x) from which letting x=1 and x=.5^.5 you can derive the equation pi= -4*i*ln((-.5)^.5+.5^.5) This equation is an alternative to Euler's equation e^(i*pi)=-1 This pi equation can be used to check the accuracy of the current value of pi. Maybe the prophecy for a mistake in the current value of pi revealed by a virtually unknown prophecy will be confirmed. -1
EdEarl Posted May 21, 2013 Posted May 21, 2013 There are open source arbitrary precision calculators that you may download and use for free. One for windows is at http://preccalc.sourceforge.net/
ajb Posted May 21, 2013 Posted May 21, 2013 There are many known expressions for pi in terms of series, limits, geometric constructions and so on. Many of them look quite messy in my opinion and I am not sure how useful many of them actual are. Some of the constructions can be used to calculate pi to a large number of decimal places.Anyway, have a look at MathWorld here for some examples.
Semjase Posted October 11, 2013 Author Posted October 11, 2013 (edited) With the an exact equation for e I've derived an exact equation for pi without e pi=(-2*i)/(log,base(i),((cos(1/2)+i*sin(1/2))^(2/i))) does this also mean that pi and e are both not transcendental numbers? e=(cos(1/2) +i*sin(1/2))^(2/i) Edited October 11, 2013 by Semjase
ajb Posted October 11, 2013 Posted October 11, 2013 does this also mean that pi and e are both not transcendental numbers? N0!
imatfaal Posted October 12, 2013 Posted October 12, 2013 With the an exact equation for e I've derived an exact equation for pi without e pi=(-2*i)/(log,base(i),((cos(1/2)+i*sin(1/2))^(2/i))) does this also mean that pi and e are both not transcendental numbers? e=(cos(1/2) +i*sin(1/2))^(2/i) That is just mindless manipulation - not a formula cosx +i sinx is e^x so your fomula give you e^-i which log base i will always be log(e^-i)/log(i) the top is just -i and the bottom is where your pi comes in -> log(i) is ipi/2 as we know e^(ipi/2) = i now it is just cancelling out and you are left with pi. no new ideas just time wasting manipulation of well understood relations and some algebra
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