blazinfury Posted February 12, 2013 Posted February 12, 2013 If a -RNA virus were to infect eukaryotic cells, that virus would need to carry its own polymerase to first become a +RNA virus and then use the host cells machinery to undergo translation, correct? Under what circumstances would that virus choose to use reverse transcriptase and become DNA and what would the benefit of that be to the virus? Is it to replicate its own DNA by going Lysogenic and then excising itself?
agachak Posted February 15, 2013 Posted February 15, 2013 canu think any chemical that destroys virus and allso is unharmful to human and leaves human body
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