bloodhound Posted December 29, 2004 Posted December 29, 2004 I'm having trouble proving the following: Let [math]G[/math] be a group and let [math]a\in G[/math]. Then [math]\lambda_{a} \colon G \to G[/math] [math]g \mapsto ag[/math] defines a bijection For a group [math]G[/math], the family of bijections [math]\{\lambda_{g} \colon g \in G\}[/math]. The map [math]\lambda \colon G \to SymG[/math] [math]g \mapsto \lambda_{g}[/math] is an injective group homomorphism i can do the lambda being bijective part. but i can't show the map from G to Sym G defined as above is an injective homomorphism.
stevem Posted December 29, 2004 Posted December 29, 2004 i can't show the map from G to Sym G defined as above is an injective homomorphism. Not sure which you can't prove - that [math]\lambda[/math] is an injection or that it is a homomorphism or both so here is how to start for both these steps: 1. Let [math]a,b \in G[/math] and [math]\lambda_a=\lambda_b[/math]. Apply these 2 functions [math]\lambda_a,\lambda_b[/math] to the identity of G and what can you deduce? 2. The binary operation in Sym(G) is composition of functions so for any g in G [math]\left(\lambda_a \circ \lambda_b\right)(g)=\lambda_a\left(\lambda_b(g) \right)=\lambda_a\left(bg\right) = \dots[/math] Then use the fact that 2 functions [math]\alpha,\beta[/math] in Sym(G) are equal if and only if [math]\alpha(g)=\beta(g)[/math] for all [math]g \in G[/math] Finally, apply what you have shown to give results about [math]\lambda[/math] using [math]\lambda(g)=\lambda_g[/math] Hope that helps.
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