kmath Posted May 1, 2013 Posted May 1, 2013 (edited) I need to show that [latex] f: (0,1) \rightarrow R[/latex] is 1-1, where [latex] f(x) [/latex] is given by [latex] (2x-1)/(x^2-x) [/latex]. My attempt: suppose:[latex] f(x) = f(y)[/latex] Then: [latex] (2x-1)/(x^2-x) [/latex] = [latex] (2y-1)/(y^2-y) [/latex]. [latex]y(y-1)(2x-1) = (x(x-1))(2y-1)[/latex] Reducing this leads to: [latex]2xy^2 - y^2 + y = 2x^2 - x^2 + x[/latex] Of course, I need to show that [latex]x = y[/latex] but I'm not sure how to reduce this equality any further. Any ideas? Thanks Edited May 1, 2013 by kmath
krash661 Posted May 1, 2013 Posted May 1, 2013 (edited) hmm, it's been a while sorry i have to refresh my memory to help. same value maybe ? Edited May 1, 2013 by krash661
shah_nosrat Posted May 17, 2013 Posted May 17, 2013 Reducing this leads to: [latex]2xy^2 - y^2 + y = 2x^2 - x^2 + x[/latex] Of course, I need to show that [latex]x = y[/latex] but I'm not sure how to reduce this equality any further. Any ideas? Thanks There's a mistake in your equality; it's supposed to be [latex]2xy^2 - y^2 + y = 2yx^2 - x^2 + x [/latex], factoring both terms on each side of the equality we have: [latex] y(2xy -y + 1) = x(2xy -x + 1) [/latex], which we can argue for x to equal to y we should have [latex]2xy -y + 1 = 2xy - x + 1[/latex], which reduces to [latex]x=y[/latex] as required, hence, your function is injective. 1
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