Gilded Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 Yeah, I've just had my first lessons in kinetic energy (Newtonian mechanics) at high school some time ago. However, quite soon I noticed that for a massless object going at c, the kinetic energy is 0. And so, I went "aha, so that's why you don't need to kick photons around to make them move". However, this made me think: how come photons have energy then? Is it only proportional to the wavelength, and if someone tells you the wavelength of a photon you can tell the energy in it right away? Or should I just go and use ONLY the relativistic mech. way to calculate Ek and get a correct result, as I have no idea how to do it. )
Martin Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 Yeah, I've just had my first lessons in kinetic energy (Newtonian mechanics) at high school some time ago. However, quite soon I noticed that for a massless object going at c, the kinetic energy is 0. the highschool formula for kinetic energy is wrong it gives the wrong answer as literally thousands of experiments have shown it just gives approx. right answers at slow speeds, but the answer it gives gets wronger and wronger as speed increases so the moral is don't believe one half em vee-square there is no problem with photon, all a photon's energy is kinetic energy you just have to use the right formulas (the ones that actually check out with careful measurement)
Gilded Posted January 19, 2005 Author Posted January 19, 2005 Yeah, I knew it was merely an approximation but I wasn't sure how badly it fails in high speeds. Sooo... Perhaps someone could tell me how to calculate Ke in a relativistic way. ) I mean, I know the formula but how do you calculate an object's total energy?
swansont Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 As Martin said, 1/2 mv2 is a purely classical equation, and the photon is not a classical particle. A photon's energy is hf, where f is the frequency and h is Planck's constant.
Martin Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 Hi gilded, when I said this there is no problem with photon' date=' all a photon's energy is kinetic energy [/quote'] it was not careful, and could be misleading. what I should say is that a photon has only its total energy E = hf and there is no way to divide that up between mass energy and kinetic energy----one cannot meaningfully distinguish kinetic energy as separate component there is no formula involving the (rest) mass because a photon has zero (rest) mass so, for example, when one calculates stuff involving the photon MOMENTUM one says that the momentum is E/c and this gives the right answers, for example in calculating the pressure of light on a mirror or a solar sail, caused by the momentum of photons bouncing from the reflector. You and I probably agree about the concept of mass (there is some controversy about the word itself but the majority probably think like us): the only meaning of mass is the inertia of a body at rest----one does not need to say "rest" mass because this is already understood---and the idea of "relativistic" mass is not useful and should be discarded. In any case this is a semantic, not a physical, issue. Then I think i can say that for light there simply is no K.E. formula, because that would involve m, and m = 0. But instead there are simply Energy formulas involving the total energy of the photon. But since you are interested in K.E. let us look at the real K.E. formula, for something (not a photon) which can exist at rest and which therefore can have a mass. the damn formula is complicated. also SFN LaTex is broken now!!! but anyway I will write some stuff out---I expect you already are familiar with all or most of it---and I use the abbreviation beta = v/c the total energy (including kinetic) E = mc^2/sqrt(1 - beta^2) the kinetic part, with the rest energy subtracted, K.E. = [mc^2/sqrt(1 - beta^2)] - mc^2 = [1/sqrt(1 - beta^2) - 1]mc^2 Now it is this thing which, for low beta, is approximately equal to (1/2)beta^2 and if we throw away the correct thing between the [] brackets and put in the approximation then we get something that boils down to the highschool formula---we get [(1/2)beta^2]mc^2 and if you put in v/c for beta then the c cancels and you just get (1/2)m v^2 so that is just the approximation, what we really want to look at is the correct thing: [1/sqrt(1 - beta^2) - 1] and we want to ask how close this thing comes to it [(1/2)beta^2] that is the same as asking How close does [1 + (1/2)beta^2] come to [1/sqrt(1 - beta^2) ]? (now the square brackets are redundant and can be thrown away) if you explore this with a calculator you find that for small beta, like beta = 0.001 or 0.01 they are so close the calculator can often not even tell the difference (because of its finite accuracy) but already for beta = 0.1 (which means a speed that is a tenth of the speed of light) you can begin to see a difference. So the mathematical intuition is about plotting two curves which are very nearly identical near zero and finding out How close, over some range of betas, is 1 + (1/2)beta^2 coming to 1/sqrt(1 - beta^2) ? If you have had Taylor series in school then you can also do some theory exercise to explain why the approximation is so good (near beta = 0) but it is almost better to just experiment with a calculator and experience how close it is. but also that it goes bad for beta bigger than 0.1.
Gilded Posted January 19, 2005 Author Posted January 19, 2005 OK, I think I got the most of it... So... If a 1g particle is going at 0.5c (so I can use the 1/2 for v/c ) )... The mass is in kg, right? And c is m/s? [1/sqrt(1 - 1/2^2) - 1]0.001*300 000 000^2 [1/0,8660... - 1]0.001*300 000 000^2 0,15470...*0.001*300 000 000^2 = approx. 13923048454133 So the particle has about 13.9230 terajoules of kinetic energy. But is this the amount of energy needed to accelerate the particle to 1/2c? Wasn't there a different formula for that? Damn, these are getting complicated. ) With the 1/2mv^2 I got 22500 terajoules. Wtf. I think I can smell a miscalculation in the relativistic calculation...
timo Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 Didn´t bother to check your relativistic calculation but the classical one is flawed, at least: 0.5*m*v² = 0.5*(1 g)*(0.5 c)² = 0.5*(1 g)*0.25*c² = (1/8 g)*(3*10^8 m/s)² = (1/8000 kg)*9*10^16 m²/s² = 9/8*10^13 J = 90/8 TJ = 11.25 TJ < 13 TJ
Gilded Posted January 19, 2005 Author Posted January 19, 2005 Ahh, so the screwup was in the classical one. Apparently, I forgot the press the "=" button, resulting into having an answer equal to 150 000 000^2. ) Remember kids, maths and late hours are a bad combination.
swansont Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 OK' date=' I think I got the most of it... So... If a 1g particle is going at 0.5c (so I can use the 1/2 for v/c ) )... The mass is in kg, right? And c is m/s? [1/sqrt(1 - 1/2^2) - 1']0.001*300 000 000^2 [1/0,8660... - 1]0.001*300 000 000^2 0,15470...*0.001*300 000 000^2 = approx. 13923048454133 [nit]You're carrying way too many significant digits[/nit]
Gilded Posted January 20, 2005 Author Posted January 20, 2005 But digit carrying is so fun. The final approximation is rather silly though, but at least it doesn't have the decimal part. )
Gilded Posted January 20, 2005 Author Posted January 20, 2005 Hey, by the way... "= [1/sqrt(1 - beta^2) - 1]mc^2 Now it is this thing which, for low beta, is approximately equal to (1/2)beta^2" I just realized that I didn't quite get that part... OK I'll have a shot at it. Mass = 1kg, velocity = 1m/s (for beta^2 I got about 1,111111111^-17) Just to annoy swansont, eventually I got 0,50000000000004000277777777777822. Ek = 0.5*1*1 = 0.5 So the approximate is wrong about 0,04 picojoules. Yay. )
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