toolman Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 hi, just wondering if anyone knows what the first ever established speaking language known to man is?
Sorcerer Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 Hmmmm not sure, but it'd be written, because writing provides evidence, while speech isnt recorded..... I think cuniform(sp?) by the sumerians. However language wouldve been around long before then, since this is written.
ed84c Posted January 19, 2005 Posted January 19, 2005 All you could ever want to know about languages developement; http://pubpages.unh.edu/~jel/video/langvid.html
ydoaPs Posted January 20, 2005 Posted January 20, 2005 why the hell were the indo-europeans so influential in the development of modern language? i can understand latin(roman empire and then recycled by french). does anyone know anything about the indo-europeans? i heard the closest to their original language is sanskrit, is there any validity to that?
Cadmus Posted February 2, 2005 Posted February 2, 2005 why the hell were the indo-europeans so influential in the development of modern language? Beacause they were around. What else might you mean? does anyone know anything about the indo-europeans? i heard the closest to their original language is sanskrit, is there any validity to that? Yes, and no. Sanskrit is distant in time and space from Indo-European.
KholdStunner Posted March 5, 2005 Posted March 5, 2005 this might not be the first language known to 'humans'. But, no matter what creature you look at, all of them have a language they speak (usually non-verbal). -Insects are probably, and most-likely, the longest-living species on this planet. Each speaks in its own way. example: a bee 'dances' in its hive to tell other bees about intruders, food or it could carry a message from the queen. so, if you think about it, i guess this could be the first language ever used...
Hellbender Posted March 9, 2005 Posted March 9, 2005 I would think the first hominid language was whatever neanderthals spoke. Fossils show that they posess a hyoid bone, and a similarly-positioned larynx, indicating they were able to vocalize in way similar to humans.
AzurePhoenix Posted March 10, 2005 Posted March 10, 2005 Yeah, but its possible that less derived hominids, such as Java Man, could have used a combination of gutteral sounds and gestures, and new studies of Flores Man shows that there's a good chance they had the brains to do so. If you don't think body language is a valid language, piss a deaf girl off. Trust me, you'll learn that even if you don't understand it, you get the gist of she wants you to know.
Auburngirl05 Posted March 10, 2005 Posted March 10, 2005 If you don't think body language is a valid language, piss a deaf girl off. Trust me, you'll learn that even if you don't understand it, you get the gist of she wants you to know. If that's a tip from personal experience, it definitely sounds like a story worth hearing....
Hellbender Posted March 10, 2005 Posted March 10, 2005 Yeah, but its possible that less derived hominids, such as Java Man, could have used a combination of gutteral sounds and gestures, and new studies of Flores Man shows that there's a good chance they had the brains to do so. If you don't think body language is a valid language, piss a deaf girl off. Trust me, you'll learn that even if you don't understand it, you get the gist of she wants you to know. True, and we still use more than just vocalization to communicate, it is just our main form of communicating. About that new study, can you give a source? I would love to read anything new about Floresiensis. I definintely think body language is valid. Heck, you can communicate with other species that way. You can tell what your dogs wants very well by it's posture and gestures. Monkeys and apes also have very similar gestures and expressions. For instance I was at a zoo and looking at two macaque monkeys, and it wasn't hard to tell what mood they were in. One was clearly bored (poor guy) and one was acting very annoyed at me and my girlfriend.
bloodhound Posted March 10, 2005 Posted March 10, 2005 why the hell were the indo-europeans so influential in the development of modern language? i can understand latin(roman empire and then recycled by french). does anyone know anything about the indo-europeans? i heard the closest to their original language is sanskrit' date=' is there any validity to that?[/quote'] I had to learn sanskrit in school. it's utter hell. Luckily I moved to UK, before I had to take any exams on it.
AzurePhoenix Posted March 13, 2005 Posted March 13, 2005 I'll see if I can't dig up my source for the brain scan, I had a valid sciency one, but I might only be able to find news articles - I lost all my 'favorite files' a while back, can't find crap
Hellbender Posted March 14, 2005 Posted March 14, 2005 I'll see if I can't dig up my source for the brain scan, I had a valid sciency one, but I might only be able to find news articles - I lost all my 'favorite files' a while back, can't find crap cool. On a side note, I noticed things are really happening with bioanthropology lately. An article I read about last night dscribed the complete reconstruction of a neandertal, and new insights into their anatomy. I will try and find the article, if anyone is interested.
AzurePhoenix Posted March 14, 2005 Posted March 14, 2005 that sounds awesome!! Plus there's that new unnamed, fully erect protohuman dating before Austrapithicus (sp?). P.S. Still searching for te science source, no luck, will a article do?
Hellbender Posted March 15, 2005 Posted March 15, 2005 that sounds awesome!! Plus there's that new unnamed, fully erect protohuman dating before Austrapithicus (sp?). P.S. Still searching for te science source, no luck, will a article do? Yeah it was cool. It turns out they (neandertals) are a side branch of our family tree, and not our ancestors (for those who didn't already suspect as much) based on very different anatomical features. They are also shorter and stockier, and more strong than we thought. I love how science is always improving. Yes, I heard about that new hominid find, but the article disappeared befor I got around to reading it. Fully erect before australopithecus and paranthropus! I can't wait to read about it. Oh yeah, anything will do, thanks a lot.
AzurePhoenix Posted March 15, 2005 Posted March 15, 2005 Flores Brain Links http://www.thestar.com/NASApp/cs/ContentServer?pagename=thestar/Layout/Article_Type1&c=Article&cid=1109976609089&call_pageid=970599119419 http://www.orlandosentinel.com/news/orl-lochobbit13031305mar13,1,5531372.story?coll=orl-news-headlines&ctrack=1&cset=true and http://www.livescience.com/imageoftheday/siod_050304.html (this one has good image) And here are first erect hominid links http://thebosh.com/archives/2005/03/scientists_find.php http://www.voanews.com/english/2005-03-10-voa64.cfm and http://xtramsn.co.nz/news/0,,11965-4176199,00.html
Hellbender Posted March 25, 2005 Posted March 25, 2005 No prob dude. Now pay up I know this is a little late (don't be mad ) but here is that neandertal article http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/7153332/
KholdStunner Posted March 26, 2005 Posted March 26, 2005 i heard over 60% of language is spoken through the body......anyways, read my post that i posted way up near the top, haha, no1 responded to it and i feel like it was useless SO SOMEONE SAY SOMETHING -by the way, those r awesome links you gave!!! thanks
Cadmus Posted March 26, 2005 Posted March 26, 2005 i heard over 60% of language is spoken through the bodyFor this to be true, you must be using the word language very loosely. There are many ways to communicate. Methods of communication are not necessarily langauge, except in a very loose way such as you seem to be using the word. Langauges have articulated phonemes that conform to a syntactic pattern thate enables the phonemes to convey meaning. Your insect langauge, for example, has no nouns, adjectives, verbs, etc. I would not call this a language. Can you elaborate on what you mean by your statement that I cited here? You use the word spoken, which to me means that sounds are articulated. What does it mean that language is "spoken" though the body?
KholdStunner Posted March 26, 2005 Posted March 26, 2005 when i said about 60% of language is made through the body i meant that we use gestures to show how we feel, what we want, or we could just smile to show someone yourhappy. or you could wave to someone to communicate a greeting. another way to put it is that about 60% of language is unspoken
Cadmus Posted March 26, 2005 Posted March 26, 2005 when i said about 60% of language is made through the body i meant that we use gestures to show how we feel' date=' what we want, or we could just smile to show someone yourhappy. or you could wave to someone to communicate a greeting. another way to put it is that about 60% of language is unspoken[/quote'] I understand now. Again, I think that you are using the word language very loosely, and not in a technically accurate manner. I think that what you mean to suggest is that 60% of communication is non-verbal. This seems about right. But non-verbal communication is not in itself language.
ecoli Posted March 26, 2005 Posted March 26, 2005 I believe the first official human language was Ancient Grunt-and-Point
Cadmus Posted March 26, 2005 Posted March 26, 2005 I believe the first official human language was Ancient Grunt-and-Point In the context of languages, the word ancient refers to 2,000 - 10,000 years ago. Perhaps you mean proto Grunt-and-Point.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now