Callipygous Posted February 4, 2005 Posted February 4, 2005 I have always heard light discribed as being both energy and matter. if its matter, it has to have mass. but according to E=MC^2, nothing with mass can reach the speed of light. so how can light reach light speed? my understanding of this stuff is limited, so sorry if im missing something important.
J.C.MacSwell Posted February 4, 2005 Posted February 4, 2005 I have always heard light discribed as being both energy and matter. if its matter' date=' it has to have mass. but according to E=MC^2, nothing with mass can reach the speed of light. so how can light reach light speed? my understanding of this stuff is limited, so sorry if im missing something important.[/quote'] It can be considered a massless particle, but I don't think it technically can be considered matter.
Callipygous Posted February 4, 2005 Author Posted February 4, 2005 its a particle, a physical thing, but it isnt matter? O.o
J.C.MacSwell Posted February 5, 2005 Posted February 5, 2005 its a particle, a physical thing, but it isnt matter? O.o I think that's right. In another thread I claimed a photon absorbed by an atom added/created matter to the atom but was convinced that strictly speaking (particle physics definition) that was incorrect. That portion of the energy did not represent matter even though you have a mass increase.
swansont Posted February 5, 2005 Posted February 5, 2005 its a particle, a physical thing, but it isnt matter? O.o Massless exchange particles aren't considered matter.
Tom Mattson Posted February 5, 2005 Posted February 5, 2005 I have always heard light discribed as being both energy and matter. if its matter' date=' it has to have mass. but according to E=MC^2, nothing with mass can reach the speed of light. so how can light reach light speed?[/quote'] The problem is that you're only looking at half the equation. E=mc2 only refers to massive particles at rest. It doesn't apply to light. The complete equation is: E2=(pc)2+(mc2)2 If you consider a particle at rest (p=0), then you have E=mc2. If you consider massless particles (m=0), then you have: E=pc which does describe light quanta.
Tommio Posted February 6, 2005 Posted February 6, 2005 It is correct that light is both a wave and massless particle, which is why light travels in quanta. Another way to look at this problem is that E=mc² means that does mean that only a photon can acheive c, the speed of light. - E (at rest) = mc² so m = E (at rest) / c² substituting in momentum E (kenetic) = 1/2 pv where p = momentum (mv) so E (total) =approx= pc which is exact for photons but not for mass Which is an explanation of the previous post. However when an 'object' is travelling faster than light it is a different matter as the theory states that the less energy the 'object' has - the faster it will travel. WORK THAT ONE OUT?!?
swansont Posted February 6, 2005 Posted February 6, 2005 E (kenetic) = 1/2 pv where p = momentum (mv) Classical equations aren't valid under relativistic conditions. edit for spelling
Tom Mattson Posted February 6, 2005 Posted February 6, 2005 E (kenetic) = 1/2 pv where p = momentum (mv) so E (total) =approx= pc which is exact for photons but not for mass. Swansont is right about this. The equation you wrote here is not valid in SR. In fact' date=' it does not make the point that you are trying to make. That is, it imposes no natural speed limit on massive bodies. The correct expression for KE is: [math']K=mc^2(\gamma-1)[/math], where [math]\gamma=\frac{1}{(1-v^2/c^2)^{1/2}}[/math]. which does indeed approach infinity as v approaches c. However when an 'object' is travelling faster than light it is a different matter as the theory states that the less energy the 'object' has - the faster it will travel. WORK THAT ONE OUT?!? You'd work it out by simultaneously allowing v>c and an imaginary mass in the above expression.
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