Radical Edward Posted April 3, 2003 Posted April 3, 2003 when an electron and positron (or any particle/antiparticle) collide, you just end up left with energy, in essence, mass has disappeared, since both have positive mass. this is a bit confusing really, since all the other quantum numbers are conserved, such as charge, spin, lepton number etc... so why does, in the case of mass 1 + 1 = 0 ?
Raider Posted April 3, 2003 Posted April 3, 2003 Wouldn't it be... 1 + 1 = lots of energy ((2c^2) + (pc))
fafalone Posted April 3, 2003 Posted April 3, 2003 Since their matter is equal and opposite, they cancel eachother out.
Tom Mattson Posted April 4, 2003 Posted April 4, 2003 Originally posted by Radical Edward when an electron and positron (or any particle/antiparticle) collide, you just end up left with energy, in essence, mass has disappeared, since both have positive mass. this is a bit confusing really, since all the other quantum numbers are conserved, such as charge, spin, lepton number etc... so why does, in the case of mass 1 + 1 = 0 ? It doesn't. The quandry is resolved in special relativity, in which the equivalence of mass and energy is deduced. The energy associated with the mass is entirely accounted for. For e+e- annihilation, the conservation law would be written: 2mec2+KEi=hv1+hv2 me=electron mass KEi=total initial kinetic energy v1=frequency of photon 1 v 2=frequency of photon 2 c=speed of light h=Planck's constant edit: subscript bracket Tom
Radical Edward Posted April 4, 2003 Author Posted April 4, 2003 oh I know that the two are equivalent, and that you end up with energy left over, but my point relates mostly to effect, since mass has effects that energy doesn't, namely gravity. In effect, you have two positive gravity sources, adding together to equal no gravity source at all.
Tom Mattson Posted April 4, 2003 Posted April 4, 2003 Originally posted by Radical Edward oh I know that the two are equivalent, and that you end up with energy left over, but my point relates mostly to effect, since mass has effects that energy doesn't, namely gravity. In effect, you have two positive gravity sources, adding together to equal no gravity source at all. No, energy does indeed gravitate. If it did not, then mass and energy would not be equivalent! In GR, all mass and energy are entered into the Einstein tensor, which then determines the curvature of space time. Tom
Raider Posted April 4, 2003 Posted April 4, 2003 oh I know that the two are equivalent, and that you end up with energy left over, but my point relates mostly to effect, since mass has effects that energy doesn't, namely gravity. In effect, you have two positive gravity sources, adding together to equal no gravity source at all. I do not think this is true. Kinetic energy acts as mass, making acceleration more difficult at higher speeds (Thus the closer to c, the harder it is to get closer...). What evidence do you have that it does not act like mass with respect to gravity?
Tom Mattson Posted April 5, 2003 Posted April 5, 2003 He doesn't--he is just mistaken. See my previous post. All matter and radiation contributes to the curvature of spacetime. Tom
Radical Edward Posted April 5, 2003 Author Posted April 5, 2003 now light having a gravitational effect is something I have never heard of.
Tom Mattson Posted April 5, 2003 Posted April 5, 2003 Yes, the basic equations of GR are the following system of coupled, nonlinear differential equations: Ruv-(1/2)Rguv=8:pi: GTuv These are a system of equations in the metric tensor, guv, which contains the geometry of spacetime. Tuv is the energy-momentum tensor, and acts as a source term. Any nonzero energy-momentum density is implied, and this includes EM radiation. Explicitly, the EM energy-momentum tensor is: Tuv=(1/4:pi: )(FurFvr-(1/4)guvFrsFrs) The important thing to note is that it is nonzero. edit: Changed from Greek to Roman indices to make equation more readable. They still stand for Lorentz indices (0,1,2,3). Tom
Raider Posted April 6, 2003 Posted April 6, 2003 That is because the effect of it is minimal, edward. Kind of like you having gravity.
Radical Edward Posted April 7, 2003 Author Posted April 7, 2003 I am not talking in an experimental or measured capacity, I haven't even heard of it in a theoretical capacity. Essentially, as I have heard, gravity is only present in massive bodies (bodies with mass) light doesn't have mass.
Raider Posted April 7, 2003 Posted April 7, 2003 It doesn't have rest mass. It has energy, so it does have mass.
Radical Edward Posted April 8, 2003 Author Posted April 8, 2003 I know that energy and mass are equivalent, but seriously, photons having mass? nope. let us assume that they do for a second: even if it wasn't rest mass, it is still mass, and hence would have to be plugged into the lorentz transforms in SR (unless you can think of a cunning reason why not). this would create a quandry, since exactly the same equation that demonstrates that only massless things can travel at c, would simultaneously demonstrate that light has mass, and therefore can't travel at c.
fafalone Posted April 8, 2003 Posted April 8, 2003 This is another case of someone not knowing that e=mc2 is really e2=(pv)2 + m2c4 where p=hf/c (not mv).
Radical Edward Posted April 8, 2003 Author Posted April 8, 2003 Originally posted by Tom <quote> you're saying photons emit gravitons?
Tom Mattson Posted April 8, 2003 Posted April 8, 2003 Raider: "It doesn't have rest mass. It has energy, so it does have mass." No, real photons are massless. If they were not, then gauge invariance could not hold, as the vector potential A would appear as a physical field in Maxwell's equations. Radical Edward: "you're saying photons emit gravitons?" I presented the (non-quantum) general relativity, and did not say anything about gravitions. GR says that all nonzero energy/momentum densities affect the curvature of spacetime, and thus give rise to the illusion we call "gravity" (in GR, gravity is not a force, but a geometrical effect). I don't know much about quantum gravity, but I would imagine that gravitons would have to couple to photons for the theory to be accepted. This should be clear from the way that gravity affects light (eg: light cannot escape a black hole). Tom
Radical Edward Posted April 8, 2003 Author Posted April 8, 2003 so, discounting diffraction, two infinitely long parallel laserbeams would bend towards one another?
Tom Mattson Posted April 8, 2003 Posted April 8, 2003 Radical Edward: "so, discounting diffraction, two infinitely long parallel laserbeams would bend towards one another?" Now, you are pushing the limits of what I know (GR is not my strongest suit). On my "To Do" list is read this document: http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/gr-qc/pdf/9811/9811052.pdf in which they analyze the problem. I will let them speak for it. fafalone: "Is there such a thing as an anti-photon? :/" The photon is its own antiparticle. Antiparticle states are understood in QFT as charge conjugated states. The charge conjugation operator changes the sign of all the additive quantum numbers, but for a photon these are all zero. Tom
Tom Mattson Posted April 8, 2003 Posted April 8, 2003 If anyone wants to get started on this, let me make a quick note: The energy-momentum tensor for EM: Tuv=(1/4:pi: )(FurFvr-(1/4)guvFrsFrs) guv is, of course, the unknown metric for which you have to solve. But Fuv is known ahead of time. Its definition is: Fuv=duAv-dvAu, the EM field strength tensor. where du=(d/dt,-grad) is the 4-gradient Au=(V,A), the 4-vector potential of EM For EM waves, V=0 and A should work out such that you get sinusoidal E and B waves (A is not unique, because of the gauge freedom). Tom
fafalone Posted April 8, 2003 Posted April 8, 2003 Originally posted by Tom The charge conjugation operator changes the sign of all the additive quantum numbers, but for a photon these are all zero. Isn't the spin quantum number for a photon 1?
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