Semjase Posted October 11, 2013 Posted October 11, 2013 (edited) I have no proof for it but just wondering if this equation is new? (-1)^(1/x) = i*sin(pi/x) + cos(pi/x) where x>=4 I've tested this equation and Google calculator gives the correct answer for every example. Edited October 11, 2013 by Semjase
John Posted October 11, 2013 Posted October 11, 2013 (edited) Well, if we consider Euler's formula and identity, [math]e^{i\theta} = \cos \theta + i \sin \theta[/math] and [math]e^{i\pi} + 1= 0 \implies e^{i\pi} = -1[/math], then your result follows pretty directly, since we have [math]i \sin \frac{\pi}{x} + \cos \frac{\pi}{x} = e^{\frac{i\pi}{x}} = (e^{{i\pi}})^{\frac{1}{x}} = (-1)^{\frac{1}{x}}[/math]. Edited October 11, 2013 by John
Semjase Posted October 11, 2013 Author Posted October 11, 2013 I'm just curious as to why that equation didn't work when plugged into google calculator when x<4?
John Posted October 11, 2013 Posted October 11, 2013 You'd probably have to ask Google about that. As a particular example, Euler's identity itself is the case where x in your equation equals 1, and 1 < 4.
Semjase Posted October 11, 2013 Author Posted October 11, 2013 You'd probably have to ask Google about that. As a particular example, Euler's identity itself is the case where x in your equation equals 1, and 1 < 4. Wolfram Alpha gave the correct result
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