Amaton Posted October 14, 2013 Posted October 14, 2013 Is [math]z^{\frac{1}{2}}[/math] equivalent to the principal square root or the plus-minus square root? 1
studiot Posted October 14, 2013 Posted October 14, 2013 In complex analysis the square root function has two branches. By convention, the principal branch maps the Z plane onto the right hand half of the w plane, allowing for cuts.The other branch is equally valid but has no special name and maps the z plane to the left hand half of the w plane in mirror image of the principal.
Endercreeper01 Posted October 15, 2013 Posted October 15, 2013 It would have to, because z2/2 is also (z2)1/2, and (za)b=zab. Because 2/2=1, then z2/2=z1=z. That is also (z2)1/2, so therefore it is. Sources: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/ExponentLaws.html http://math2.org/math/algebra/exponents.htm http://tobybartels.name/MATH-0950/2007s/monomials/ http://www.math.hmc.edu/calculus/tutorials/reviewtriglogexp/
mathematic Posted October 15, 2013 Posted October 15, 2013 The idea of "principal" square root is a matter of convention. Mathematically both square roots are equally valid. 1
Amaton Posted October 27, 2013 Author Posted October 27, 2013 The idea of "principal" square root is a matter of convention. Mathematically both square roots are equally valid. Thanks guys. I was only thinking about a real argument in the square root, but now I also know something about the complex function. It would have to, because z2/2 is also (z2)1/2, and (za)b=zab. Because 2/2=1, then z2/2=z1=z. That is also (z2)1/2, so therefore it is. It would have to be what? I can't tell what you're arguing for.
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