Function Posted November 13, 2013 Posted November 13, 2013 (edited) Hello everyone I've seen 2 definitions for [math]e[/math] (one on the internet, one I have proven myself): [math]e=\lim_{n\to\infty}{\left[1+\frac{1}{n}\right]^n}[/math] and [math]e=\lim_{n\to 0}{\left[n+1\right]^{\frac{1}{n}}}[/math] Now, is there a proof that these two are equal? (I'd first like to know if I can change the first expression to something in the form of [math]n\to 0[/math].) Thanks! Function Edited November 13, 2013 by Function
imatfaal Posted November 13, 2013 Posted November 13, 2013 According to wiki they are provable equivalent http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/E_%28mathematical_constant%29#Alternative_characterizations Although I haven't looked at their proof
studiot Posted November 13, 2013 Posted November 13, 2013 Maybe I'm nitpicking but surely both these definitions are flawed? e is the sum of an infinite series, which we can prove by Tannery's theorem converges to the first limit. With the second limit what is the first n in your series ?
uncool Posted November 13, 2013 Posted November 13, 2013 Hello everyone I've seen 2 definitions for [math]e[/math] (one on the internet, one I have proven myself): [math]e=\lim_{n\to\infty}{\left[1+\frac{1}{n}\right]^n}[/math] and Now, is there a proof that these two are equal? (I'd first like to know if I can change the first expression to something in the form of [math]n\to 0[/math].) Thanks! Function You may want to restrict the second one to the right-handed limit, i.e. [math]e=\lim_{n\to 0^+}{\left[n+1\right]^{\frac{1}{n}}}[/math] Then, we can easily see that the two are equivalent by looking at the first limit and letting [math]n = \frac{1}{n'}[/math].
Function Posted November 13, 2013 Author Posted November 13, 2013 You may want to restrict the second one to the right-handed limit, i.e. [math]e=\lim_{n\to 0^+}{\left[n+1\right]^{\frac{1}{n}}}[/math] Then, we can easily see that the two are equivalent by looking at the first limit and letting [math]n = \frac{1}{n'}[/math]. Thanks
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