Would you possibly elaborate you explanations?

[Cyrus the Great]

Following the indications of Levi-strauss ,Lacan turns to linguistics to provide psychoanalytic theory with a conceptual rigour that it previously lacked.the reason for this lack of conceptual rigor was simply due, Lacan argues, to the fact that structural linguistic appeared too late for Freud to make use of it;"Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" suffice to explain why Freud lacked this particular tool' .

 

1. What does ' conceptual rigor ' mean? would you please give me a simple example?

 

2.Would you please tell me readily why "appeared too late for Freud to make use of it"?- or why it was too late for Freud?

 

3. In addition, what does "suffice to explain "mean according to the text?

Thanks in advance

 

 

 

 

Countinue;

 

Following the indications of Levi-strauss ,Lacan turns to linguistics to provide psychoanalytic theory with a conceptual rigour that it previously lacked.the reason for this lack of conceptual rigor was simply due, Lacan argues, to the fact that structural linguistic appeared too late for Freud to make use of it;"Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" suffice to explain why Freud lacked this particular tool' .However,Lacan argues that when Freud is reread in the light of linguistic theory , a coherent logic is revealed which is not otherwise apparent ; indeed , Freud can even be seen to have anticipated certain elements of modern linguistic theory

Edited November 16, 2013 by Cyrus the Great

[EdEarl]

There is insufficient information in your post to give you a direct answer. Apparently, Lacan wrote something about conceptual rigor that may have been discussed one of your previous reading assignments.

 

"Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" also appear to refer to required reading, but I do not know what they refer to.

[Cyrus the Great]

Thank you so much.And , what does suffice to explain mean?

What does Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" suffice to explain why Freud lacked this particular tool'.mean?

[EdEarl]

The phrase "suffice to explain" means sufficient to explain. Again, I do not know what Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" refer to and have no idea why they are sufficient (enough) to explain.

Edited November 16, 2013 by EdEarl

[Cyrus the Great]

Source:http://nosubject.com/index.php?title=Talk:Linguistics

Thank you very much again, and what are Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920"?

[DevilSolution]

Thank you so much.And , what does suffice to explain mean?

What does Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" suffice to explain why Freud lacked this particular tool'.mean?

 

Suffice to explain means it was clearly demonstrated. or shows.

 

Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" shows clearly why freud lacked this particular tool.

 

They are places, but in this context they i think they represent works of literature.

Edited November 16, 2013 by DevilSolution

[StringJunky]

Following the indications of Levi-strauss ,Lacan turns to linguistics to provide psychoanalytic theory with a conceptual rigour that it previously lacked.the reason for this lack of conceptual rigor was simply due, Lacan argues, to the fact that structural linguistic appeared too late for Freud to make use of it;"Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" suffice to explain why Freud lacked this particular tool' .

 

1. What does ' conceptual rigor ' mean? would you please give me a simple example?

This means usually how logically well put together an idea is or the strength of the method of reasoning. An argument or idea with a strong conceptual rigor has a well thought-out path of arguments or line of reasoning.

 

 

3. In addition, what does "suffice to explain "mean according to the text?

Another way of saying "suffice to explain" is: "It is enough to make clear", In the context of your extract, the use of 'Geneva 1910' and' Petrograd 1920' as references is enough to explain why Freud lacked this tool

Edited November 16, 2013 by StringJunky

[Cyrus the Great]

Thank you all so much.

 

But I wonder the reason why this matter is too late?

 

Lacan argues, to the fact that structural linguistic appeared too late for Freud to make use of it;"Geneva 1910" and "Petrograd 1920" suffice to explain why Freud lacked this particular tool'

 

Which one?

1.Because of the age of Freud(he has died)

2.because of Geneva 1910 and petrograd

[Amanbir Singh Grewal]

marathon.

 

i think he meant like keep driving till it screams.