GaryLeo Posted February 14, 2005 Posted February 14, 2005 Hi, I am having trouble understanding some things. Firstly why is Piebald trait related to a gene on an autosome and not an X chromosome? The mother is the carrier of the trait and the father is not, they have 4 children, 3 of them (2 sons and one daughter) are affected and 1 isn't (another daughter). What would be the chance be of one of the affected sons passing the trait down to his children? I worked it out to be 1 in 4 chance but I am not so sure now. Any help would be really appreciated. Thanks.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now