Function Posted April 8, 2014 Posted April 8, 2014 (edited) Hello In preparation for the acceptance exam for Med school, inheritance is very important. I just discovered how I can see whether a disease is dominant or recessive. There's only one problem: I don't know how to tell if the disease is so-called 'gender-related' (or X-chromosome linked). Take the following example: Healthy brother has an affected sister. They have an affected father and a healthy mother. The affected father has a healthy sister. They are the result of healthy parents. The mother has a healthy brother. They are the result of a healthy father and an affected mother. I can tell this disease is recessive. I do this by reasoning as following: (please tell me if there's a shorter way) Let's assume the disease is recessive and displayed by genotype aa. Healthy would thus mean a genotype Aa or AA. Daughter has sickness: aa Her brother (son): Aa or AA Father: aa Mother: Aa or AA Should mother be AA, then daughter should also be Aa, which is not the case --> mother: Aa Result: brother: Aa Mother's father: aa; since mother: Aa, mother's mother must be Aa. Result: mother's brother: Aa Since father: aa, both his healthy parents should be Aa. Result: father's brother: Aa. No problems are found, so the disease is recessive. Affirmation: suppose the disease is dominant. Daughter: Aa/AA Brother: aa Mother: aa Father: Aa (since daughter must have an A) Father's healthy parents: aa; since both his parents should be aa, he could not be Aa. Result: the system is in error, so the disease cannot be dominant. So, it's confirmed the sickness is recessive. 2 questions: * Can this be done in a shorter way? * How can I see this disease is not X-chromosome linked? I don't really get this part, because I'd say that it is X-chromosome linked, for both the daughter and her father have the disease. In some way, thus, I guess mother's mother must have something to do with it? Thanks. Ta-ta Function Edited April 8, 2014 by Function
chadn737 Posted April 8, 2014 Posted April 8, 2014 Its not X-linked. The key is here: "Healthy brother has an affected sister. They have an affected father and a healthy mother. The affected father has a healthy sister. They are the result of healthy parents. The mother has a healthy brother. They are the result of a healthy father and an affected mother." Males, remember have only a single X-chromosome in normal circumstances and they get it from the mother. You are right, this is a recessive trait, which means that the great-grandmother has two copies of the disease causing allele. If it were X-linked, the grandmother's brother would be affected as it is almost certain he would get a disease causing allele. 1
Function Posted April 9, 2014 Author Posted April 9, 2014 You are right, this is a recessive trait, which means that the great-grandmother has two copies of the disease causing allele. If it were X-linked, the grandmother's brother would be affected as it is almost certain he would get a disease causing allele. I'm afraid I still don't really get it. Why do you suddenly bring in a great-grandmother? I thought it was just the grandmother who has two copies of this recessive disease-allele? And nothing is given of grandmother's brother. He's not in this family tree. Perhaps you mean mother's brother? If this is the case, I think I get it: uncle gets one of the two affected X-chromosomes of grandmother, so should have the disease (I just accepted this; is the Y-chromosome not affecting the result, even when it doesn't carry the recessive-disease-causing allele? I mean, will a X-linked disease always affect a male when his mother has two copies of the causing allele, even when he has a completely healthy father, resulting in chromosomes XdYD? (Xd is X-chromosome with causing allele, YD is Y-chromosome with no causing allele)), but he hasn't, so the disease is not X-linked but autosomal?
chadn737 Posted April 9, 2014 Posted April 9, 2014 I'm afraid I still don't really get it. Why do you suddenly bring in a great-grandmother? I thought it was just the grandmother who has two copies of this recessive disease-allele? And nothing is given of grandmother's brother. He's not in this family tree. Perhaps you mean mother's brother? If this is the case, I think I get it: uncle gets one of the two affected X-chromosomes of grandmother, so should have the disease (I just accepted this; is the Y-chromosome not affecting the result, even when it doesn't carry the recessive-disease-causing allele? I mean, will a X-linked disease always affect a male when his mother has two copies of the causing allele, even when he has a completely healthy father, resulting in chromosomes XdYD? (Xd is X-chromosome with causing allele, YD is Y-chromosome with no causing allele)), but he hasn't, so the disease is not X-linked but autosomal? I meant the affected grandmother and the unaffected Uncle. I counted that wrong yesterday. Yes. In an X-linked recessive disease, any sons of an affected Mother will have the disease. The Y-chromosome does not compensate for this. If this disease were X-linked then the Uncle should be affected. That he is not means it is autosomal. 1
Function Posted April 9, 2014 Author Posted April 9, 2014 (edited) I meant the affected grandmother and the unaffected Uncle. I counted that wrong yesterday. Yes. In an X-linked recessive disease, any sons of an affected Mother will have the disease. The Y-chromosome does not compensate for this. If this disease were X-linked then the Uncle should be affected. That he is not means it is autosomal. Ah, wonderful. I think I get it +2 Thanks! Edited April 9, 2014 by Function
Function Posted April 9, 2014 Author Posted April 9, 2014 (edited) One more thing, just to be sure: Imagine a recessive, X-linked disease. Father is carrier of the allele, and must thus be sick. Mother is not carrier of the allele. Conclusion: all the daughters are carriers of the allele, and none of the sons are, and none of the children is affected by the recessive disease. Reasoning: XDXD + XdYD = XDXd, XDXd, XDYD, XDYD With (X/Y)D a sex-chromosome without the disease causing allele, and Xd an X-chromosome with the disease causing allele. Healthy dominates sick, so none has the disease, but 2/4 are carriers. Correct? Edited April 9, 2014 by Function
chadn737 Posted April 9, 2014 Posted April 9, 2014 One more thing, just to be sure: Imagine a recessive, X-linked disease. Father is carrier of the allele, and must thus be sick. Mother is not carrier of the allele. Conclusion: all the daughters are carriers of the allele, and none of the sons are, and none of the children is affected by the recessive disease. Reasoning: XDXD + XdYD = XDXd, XDXd, XDYD, XDYD With (X/Y)D a sex-chromosome without the disease causing allele, and Xd an X-chromosome with the disease causing allele. Healthy dominates sick, so none has the disease, but 2/4 are carriers. Correct? If one half are daughters correct.
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