fafalone Posted April 12, 2003 Posted April 12, 2003 sin(x) = e^(ix)-e^(-ix)/(2i) cos(x)= e^(ix)+e^(-ix)/2 tan(x) = (i(1-e^(2ix)))/(1+e^(2ix)) sec(x) = (2i)/e^(ix)-e^(-ix) csc(x) = 2/e^(ix)+e^(-ix) cot(x) = (1+e^(2ix))/(i(1-e^(2ix)) sinh(x) = e^(x)-e^(-x)/2 cosh(x)= e^(x)+e^(-x)/2 tanh(x) = (e^x-e^-x)/(e^-x+e^x) Have fun thinking about why all this is true.
fafalone Posted April 12, 2003 Author Posted April 12, 2003 Proving converging infinite series involving imaginary numbers is not a task for the faint of heart. I worked out a proof for one of these, it took 4 hours. But what else could have I been doing in calc1?
Dave Posted April 12, 2003 Posted April 12, 2003 it's not nice. but they are pretty, you can work out all kinds of stuff with them (like arcsin(2) or whatever).
JaKiri Posted April 24, 2003 Posted April 24, 2003 Originally posted by fafalone sinh(x) = e^(x)-e^(-x)/2 cosh(x)= e^(x)+e^(-x)/2 tanh(x) = (e^x-e^-x)/(e^-x+e^x) Have fun thinking about why all this is true. I think those are true because that's how hyperbolic functions are defined.
Guest eps Posted October 17, 2003 Posted October 17, 2003 That's easy... e^u = 1 + u + u^2/2! + u^3/3! + ... via taylor series Then, exponentiation of a number to a complex number is defined through this so that: e^(ix) = 1 + ix + (ix)^2/2! + (ix)^3/3! + ... = 1 + ix - x^2/2! - ix^3/3! + ... = (1 - x^2/2! + ... ) + i(x - x^3/3! + ... ) = cos(x) + i*sin(x) Therefore, *by definition* e^(ix) = cos(x) + i*sin(x). For example, if we want cos(x) in terms of some expression with e^(ix) and/or a variant of e^(-ix) we can do the following: e^(ix) = cos(x) + i*sin(x) e^(-ix) = cos(x) - i*sin(x) //since cos(-x) = cos(x), sin(-x) = -sin(x) Then by adding the equations, [e^(ix) + e^(-ix)] = 2cos(x) cos(x) = (1/2) * (e^(ix) + e^(-ix)) Hyperbolic functions are defined in their own right, the names given to them are similar to the trig functions due to the properties they share with each other THESE FORUMS ROCK!!!! GO FAF!!!!
fafalone Posted October 18, 2003 Author Posted October 18, 2003 Thanks Of course it's easy if you know about Taylor series... but if you don't, it's really interesting.
Guest eps Posted October 29, 2003 Posted October 29, 2003 Well that's the thing: They are all the result of the _definition_: e^(ix) = cos(x) + i*sin(x) ..Which came from using the taylor expansion of e^u while assuming it holds for complex u (e.g. u = ix) So there isn't anything mysterious behind these alternate expressions for the trig functions. How else would you have arrived at them?
JaKiri Posted October 29, 2003 Posted October 29, 2003 Trigonometric function definitions that will blow, this thread proclaims to be on the front page.
fafalone Posted October 29, 2003 Author Posted October 29, 2003 Fixed. Increased max thread title shown to 60...
Tom Mattson Posted November 12, 2003 Posted November 12, 2003 eps said in post #8 :Well that's the thing: They are all the result of the _definition_: e^(ix) = cos(x) + i*sin(x) ..Which came from using the taylor expansion of e^u while assuming it holds for complex u (e.g. u = ix) Definitions don't "come from" other things. The Taylor expansion you speak of is a theorem, and the complex exponential relation you cited is a special case of that. It is not a definition.
Guest eps Posted December 19, 2003 Posted December 19, 2003 The function e^x is known to be analytic for real x, but the concept of finding a "meaning" for a real number raised to a complex exponential didn't exist until we decided to take the taylor series for e^u and go ahead and *define* it for non-real u, e.g. u = ix. So in turn, e^(ix) = cos(x) + i*sin(x) due to the fact that we defined e^u to be analytic for all complex u
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