petrushka.googol Posted May 20, 2014 Share Posted May 20, 2014 Do entangled states violate the conventional norms of entropy? In entangled states particles are in unison with no apparent cause and the entropy of this system is decreasing. To maintain this state energy has to be drawn in from somewhere? How do we explain this quasi-equilibrium state? Please advise. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaynos Posted May 20, 2014 Share Posted May 20, 2014 They are not in unison, they are entangled. Why do you think maintaining the entanglement requires energy? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
petrushka.googol Posted May 20, 2014 Author Share Posted May 20, 2014 They are not in unison, they are entangled. Why do you think maintaining the entanglement requires energy? I base my assertion on the common sense principle that "to create order implies a constraint whose origins may be external or internal. Imposition of a constraint implies inputting some energy into the system, either explicitly or tacitly." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Klaynos Posted May 20, 2014 Share Posted May 20, 2014 OK, I don't quite see how that applies to entanglement. Could you please explain what you understand to be meant by entanglement? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
petrushka.googol Posted May 20, 2014 Author Share Posted May 20, 2014 OK, I don't quite see how that applies to entanglement. Could you please explain what you understand to be meant by entanglement? To keep a set of entangled particles say of spin -1 and 1 in an entangled state, there must be some binding between the two, even if it means the particles are separated by a space like separation. Pure coincidence, much like telepathy, seems irrational. Non locality without some external "force ether" seems to defy the principles of entropy of the universe and physics in general. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted May 20, 2014 Share Posted May 20, 2014 To keep a set of entangled particles say of spin -1 and 1 in an entangled state, there must be some binding between the two, even if it means the particles are separated by a space like separation. Pure coincidence, much like telepathy, seems irrational. Non locality without some external "force ether" seems to defy the principles of entropy of the universe and physics in general. Entanglement is not an interaction. It may be the result of an interaction, but it basically stems from a conservation law and not knowing or being able to distinguish a property that two particles have. The particles do not share an interaction once they are entangled. Since the property, such as spin, is conserved, it won't change unless there is an interaction. There is no external interaction needed to e.g. conserve angular momentum. Such conservation is the default condition of any system. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hoola Posted June 7, 2014 Share Posted June 7, 2014 (edited) what if entangled particles are running on synchronized internal clocks. These clocks are synchronized by the act of entanglement, can be separated then held in isolation so the clocks run at the same speed, leaving the outputs as far as spin and other internal arrangements the same, regardless of their separation distance. Until the outside world affects one, then the internal clock is altered, destroying the entanglement between the 2 particles...and one spin rotates out of sync since it's time base is now higher or lower in frequency...the other particle still in isolation should still have an unaltered clock, so there is no transfer of information between particles, no violation of einstein Edited June 7, 2014 by hoola Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
petrushka.googol Posted June 7, 2014 Author Share Posted June 7, 2014 what if entangled particles are running on synchronized internal clocks. These clocks are synchronized by the act of entanglement, can be separated then held in isolation so the clocks run at the same speed, leaving the outputs as far as spin and other internal arrangements the same, regardless of their separation distance. Until the outside world affects one, then the internal clock is altered, destroying the entanglement between the 2 particles...and one spin rotates out of sync since it's time base is now higher or lower in frequency...the other particle still in isolation should still have an unaltered clock, so there is no transfer of information between particles, no violation of einstein My rationale is thus : A clock implies time (time is not absolute) -> which implies time coupled with space (space time) -> which implies displacement -> in this case space like separation -> which implies violation of einstein...viola Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
swansont Posted June 7, 2014 Share Posted June 7, 2014 what if entangled particles are running on synchronized internal clocks. These clocks are synchronized by the act of entanglement, can be separated then held in isolation so the clocks run at the same speed, leaving the outputs as far as spin and other internal arrangements the same, regardless of their separation distance. Until the outside world affects one, then the internal clock is altered, destroying the entanglement between the 2 particles...and one spin rotates out of sync since it's time base is now higher or lower in frequency...the other particle still in isolation should still have an unaltered clock, so there is no transfer of information between particles, no violation of einstein AFAIK entanglement has been shown under conditions where the internal clocks would not be at the same rate, and yet were still entangled. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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