iScience92 Posted August 7, 2014 Share Posted August 7, 2014 (edited) [math]\vec{F}=q\vec{v}\times\vec{B}[/math][math]\frac{d\vec{F}}{dq}=\vec{v}\times\vec{B}[/math][math]\int\frac{d\vec{F}}{dq} \cdot ds=\int(\frac{d\vec{s}}{dt}\times\vec{B}) \cdot ds[/math]from here, I went about it two different ways:1.) Here I assumed everything was at right angles and got rid of all the vectors and vector products[math]\varepsilon=\int \frac{ds}{dt}B ds=\int \frac{ds}{dt}B \frac{ds}{dt}dt[/math]By u substitution[math]u=\frac{ds}{dt}, du=dt[/math][math]\varepsilon=\int B(u^2)du=\frac{Bv^3}{3}[/math]where v = ds/dtThat was the first way i went about it, but i didn't feel any closer to Faraday's law.2.) Here I left the vectors alone on the RHS; I figured since [math]\hat{v}[/math] and d[math]\hat{s}[/math] were perpendicular, the quantity ([math]\vec{v}[/math]s) would be a time derivative of the area formed[math]\varepsilon=\int\frac{ds}{dt}B ds=\int(\vec{v}\times\vec{B}) \cdot d\vec{s}=\dot{A}B[/math][math]\varepsilon=\frac{BA}{dt}[/math]don't know where the minus sign is; probably was supposed to do something with the cross product, but didn't know what.Well I got alot further with the second "method," but is this a valid derivation? and what went wrong with the first method? Edited August 7, 2014 by iScience92 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
iScience92 Posted August 9, 2014 Author Share Posted August 9, 2014 Oh! PS, well, more like pre-script... my goal is to derive faraday's induction law from lorentz force law Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
studiot Posted August 9, 2014 Share Posted August 9, 2014 What makes you think they are not independent? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
iScience92 Posted August 11, 2014 Author Share Posted August 11, 2014 One day I applied Lorentz's Law on a charge inside the coil of a speaker. I found that in any given instant, the force felt by a particle was always radially outward, not along the coil wire. So i claim, either there is a relationship between the two laws, in which case, i'm trying to derive the less fundamental to the one more so. Or, there is another "law" of interaction going on that i don't know about, in which case, please inform me so. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
studiot Posted August 11, 2014 Share Posted August 11, 2014 One day I applied Lorentz's Law on a charge inside the coil of a speaker. I found that in any given instant, the force felt by a particle was always radially outward, not along the coil wire. The equations governing speaker motion and their coils and driver currents are not simple electrical equations. There is a mechanical equation to take into account as well. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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