avasalie Posted March 26, 2015 Share Posted March 26, 2015 I am an instructor having a Problem trying to reconcile the sum rule with the answer to this Q: if a blue eyed (bb) woman marries a man with brown eyes (B?) where his genotype is unknown, what is the probability of having a blue-eyed child? I calculate it at 1/4 because he has 1/2 chance of being Bb and 1/2 chance of passing it on. But if you consider it as mutually exclusive he is either BB OR Bb, then if he is BB there is 0 chance of blue eyed child OR if he is Bb, there is 1/2 chance of blue eyed child, then 0 + 1/2 = 1/2. What is wrong here? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
imatfaal Posted March 26, 2015 Share Posted March 26, 2015 Surely you need to weight the averages? There is a 50pct chance of him being Bb and if and only if this is the case then a 50pct chance that his child with bb mother will be blue eyed. That is two probabilities - both of which must come true; do you know how to calculate that single probability? The other way is to draw a simple diagram listing all the equally likely possibilities (there will be eight - four that are the results of BB|bb and four that are the results of Bb|bb) You have eight possible outcomes - and you can count how many are blue-eyed Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Delta1212 Posted March 26, 2015 Share Posted March 26, 2015 Yeah, you can't just add unweight odds like that. Let's say I have to flip a coin, and want to know what the probability that I will get heads is. First I have to pick which coin to flip from among four possible coins, one of which is a two-headed coin. So coin A has a 1/2 chance of giving me heads, B has a 1/2, C has a 1/2 chance and D has a probability of 1. If I add those the way you added 0 + 1/2, I would get : 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1 = 2.5 And thus conclude that there is a 250% of my getting heads. The proper way to do it is to see that there is a 1/4 chance of picking coin A, and then a 1/2 chance of getting heads. There is therefore a 1/8 chance of getting a coin A heads. Same with coins B and C. Coin D also has a 1/4 chance of being picked, but a 100% chance of getting heads if selected, so the odds of getting a coin D heads are 1/4. That gives me 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/8 + 1/4 = 5/8 chance of getting heads, which is a little bit above 50%, or exactly what you'd expect when selecting from a group of coins that includes one double-head coin. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bruno527 Posted March 29, 2015 Share Posted March 29, 2015 This seems like a bad question without enough information provided. You don't know that the probability of the man being Bb is 1/2 without knowing more about his parents or about the frequency of the b allele in the population. If you are to assume that his probability is 1/2, which is unfounded, then your reasoning is correct and the answer would be 1/4. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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